Avionics and Aircraft Systems, Exams of Signals and Systems

Detailed information about the various avionics and aircraft systems found on the crj 200 aircraft. It covers topics such as the crew escape hatch, avionics bay door, cargo bay door, eicas system, flight directors, air conditioning system, and more. The document delves into the technical aspects of these systems, including their functionality, power sources, and safety features. It is likely intended for pilots, maintenance technicians, or aviation enthusiasts who require a comprehensive understanding of the crj 200's complex systems and their operation.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 10/08/2024

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AWAC Systems Practice Quiz with 355 Complete Questions
and Answers.
True or False: ____ 1. The most recent message displayed on EICAS appears on the
top of the associated list. - ANS True
True or False:
____ 2. All aural alerts can be disabled. - ANS False
True or False:
____ 3. Warning messages can be boxed. - ANS False
True or False:
____ 4. Advisory messages can be boxed. - ANS False
True or False:
____ 5. Several pages can be displayed on the PFD using reversionary modes. - ANS
False
True or False:
____ 6. Caution messages can be removed from view by pressing the CAS button. -
ANS True
7. The maximum number of people permitted on the passenger door stairway is?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5 - ANS c. 4
8. The crew escape hatch?
a. Can be opened from the inside and outside
b. Can only be opened from the inside
c. Can only be opened from the outside
d. Is hydraulically operated - ANS a. Can be opened from the inside and outside
9. The passenger door rests on?
a. Two support wheels when the door is open
b. Two support plates when the door is open
c. One support wheel when the door is open
d. One support plate when the door is open - ANS c. One support wheel when the door
is open
10. Passenger door closing from the inside?
a. Can only be accomplished manually
b. Can only be accomplished electrically
c. Normally accomplished using DOOR ASSIST switch
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AWAC Systems Practice Quiz with 355 Complete Questions

and Answers.

True or False: ____ 1. The most recent message displayed on EICAS appears on the top of the associated list. - ANS True True or False: ____ 2. All aural alerts can be disabled. - ANS False True or False: ____ 3. Warning messages can be boxed. - ANS False True or False: ____ 4. Advisory messages can be boxed. - ANS False True or False: ____ 5. Several pages can be displayed on the PFD using reversionary modes. - ANS False True or False: ____ 6. Caution messages can be removed from view by pressing the CAS button. - ANS True

  1. The maximum number of people permitted on the passenger door stairway is? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 - ANS c. 4
  2. The crew escape hatch? a. Can be opened from the inside and outside b. Can only be opened from the inside c. Can only be opened from the outside d. Is hydraulically operated - ANS a. Can be opened from the inside and outside
  3. The passenger door rests on? a. Two support wheels when the door is open b. Two support plates when the door is open c. One support wheel when the door is open d. One support plate when the door is open - ANS c. One support wheel when the door is open
  4. Passenger door closing from the inside? a. Can only be accomplished manually b. Can only be accomplished electrically c. Normally accomplished using DOOR ASSIST switch

d. Both b & c - ANS d. Both b & c; Can only be accomplished electrically Normally accomplished using

  1. What provides mechanical confirmation that the service door is locked? a. A green indicator located below the inner handle b. A green indicator located below the outer handle c. A green indicator located below both the inner and outer handle d. A red indicator located below the inner handle - ANS a. A green indicator located below the inner handle
  2. The avionics bay door is? a. A non-plug type door and can only be opened from the inside b. A plug type door and can only be opened from the outside c. A plug type door and can be opened from both the inside and outside D. Is located on the right side of the fuselage - ANS b. A plug type door and can only be opened from the outside
  3. The cargo bay door is? a. A plug type door installed on the right side of the fuselage b. A plug type door installed on the left side of the fuselage c. A hydraulically operated door installed on the right side of the fuselage d. A hydraulically operated door installed on the left side of the fuselage - ANS b. A plug type door installed on the left side of the fuselage
  4. An amber SERVICE DOOR EICAS message indicates? a. Service door unlocked b. Outer handle not stowed c. Service door unlocked or outer handle not stowed d. Service door not latched - ANS c. Service door unlocked or outer handle not stowed
  5. If the left over-wing emergency hatch is opened? a. A red L EMER DOOR message is displayed but no aural is sounded b. A red L EMER DOOR message is displayed and an aural EMER DOOR OPEN is sounded c. An amber L EMER DOOR message is displayed d. An amber L EMER DOOR message is displayed and an aural EMER DOOR OPEN is sounded - ANS c. An amber L EMER DOOR message is displayed
  6. Name the EICAS page that automatically appears on ED 2, if the ED 1 display fails. A. status B. synoptic C. primary D. menu - ANS c. primary
  7. Aircraft door information is displayed on the...

A. Wired differently and not interchangeable. B. Interchangeable only between EICAS displays. C. Interchangeable only between left EFIS and right EFIS displays. d. Completely identical and interchangeable. - ANS d. completely identical and interchangeable.

  1. Power for EICAS CRTs: a. Comes from the DC battery bus and is limited to 5 minutes without AC power for cooling. b. Comes from the DC battery bus and is limited to 5 minutes without PACKs running for cooling. c. Comes from the AC essential bus and is limited to 5 minutes operation without DC power for cooling. D. Is DC and has no restrictions. - ANS a. Comes from the DC battery bus and is limited to 5 minutes without AC power for cooling.
  2. Intensity for CRT displays are adjusted a. Independently with small adjustment knobs on each display unit. b. All together using DISPL knob on lighting panels c. Automatically by measuring pilot eyestrain. d. Both a and b above. - ANS d. Both a and b above.
  3. The purpose of a DCU is to: a. Transmit flight data in a concentrated form to ground personnel. b. Detect system malfunctions and initiate automatic EFCS corrections. c. Gather system information and forward it to EICAS, LDU, MDC, and FDR. d. Control APU automatic fire protection sequencing. - ANS c. Gather system information and forward it to EICAS, LDU, MDC, and FDR.
  4. Pressing a flashing master warning switch light: a. Silences the single chime. b. Extinguishes the flashing light. c. Silences all aural warnings. d. Both b and c above. - ANS b. extinguishes the flashing light
  5. A flashing amber master caution indication is accompanied by: a. A single chime and an aural warning in some cases. b. A single chime. c. A triple chime. d. Extreme anxiety. - ANS b. A single chime.
  6. Green EICAS messages are _________ messages. A. Advisory b. Warning c. Status d. Caution - ANS a. Advisory
  1. When more caution messages are generated than can be displayed on one screen: a. Less important caution messages are cleared to make room. b. Oldest caution messages are cleared to make room. c. Multiple pages of messages are stored and must be "paged" to be viewed. d. Caution messages overflow onto ED2. - ANS c. multiple pages of messages are stored and must be "paged" to be viewed.
  2. Certain EICAS messages are inhibited during specific phases of flight. These phases are: a. Takeoff, approach & landing b. Initial takeoff, Final takeoff, Landing c. Takeoff, Final approach, Taxi D. Cruise, Final approach, Taxi - ANS b. Initial takeoff, Final takeoff, landing
  3. The EICAS control panel (ECP) is powered by: a. DC Bus 1 b. DC ESS Bus c. AC ESS Bus d. Battery Bus - ANS d. Battery Bus
  4. Status messages appear in _____ after the advisory messages. a. Green b. Amber c. Red d. White - ANS d. White
  5. Warnings are indicated by _____ messages at the top of the message list on the EICAS display. a. Green b. Amber c. Red d. White - ANS c. Red
  6. During the initial takeoff, certain caution messages are inhibited when: a. Both engines N1 is less that 67.6% with airspeed >100 kits b. Radio altitude is less than 400 feet AGL c. Both engines N1 is greater than 79%, with weight-on-wheels, < 100 kits d. Radio altitude is greater than 400 feet AGL - ANS c. Both engines N1 is greater than 79%, with weight-on-wheels, < 100 kits
  7. Where is the emergency crash axe located? A. Behind the co-pilot's seat b. Ceiling panel above co-pilot C. overhead bin at row 12 d. Access panel adjacent to overawing exits - ANS a. behind the co-pilot's seat
  1. At what altitude will the mask deliver 100% oxygen at a constant flow regardless of N/100% lever position? A. 14,000 ft. cabin altitude B. 14,000 ft. pressure altitude C. 30,000 ft. cabin altitude D. 30,000 ft. pressure altitude - ANS c. 30,000 ft. cabin altitude
  2. How is the oxygen mask microphone selected on? a. Turns on automatically b. Selecting mask on the oxygen control panel located next to the mask storage unit c. There is no mic installed on the oxygen masks d. Selecting MASK on the MASK/BOOM switch on the associated audio control panel - ANS d. Selecting MASK on the MASK/BOOM switch on the associated audio control panel
  3. How can the passenger oxygen system be manually deployed? a. PASS OXY switch light located on the overhead panel b. PASS OXY switch light located on the center pedestal c. The system can only be deployed automatically d. By pressing the EMER button on each passenger service unit - ANS a. PASS OXY switch light located on the overhead panel
  4. When will the passenger masks automatically deploy? A. At pressure altitudes above 14,000 ft. b. If the CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 10,000 ft. C. At pressure altitudes above 31,000 ft. d. If the CPAM detects a cabin altitude above 14,000 ft. - ANS d. If the CPAM detects a cabin altitude above 14,000 ft.
  5. Where is the danger area located in front of an idling engine? A. 12 ft. B. 15 ft. C. 25 ft. D. 30 ft. - ANS a. 12 ft.
  6. Where is the danger area in front of the engine at maximum thrust? A. 12 ft. B. 15 ft. C. 25 ft. D. 30 ft. - ANS c. 25 ft.
  7. What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn? A. 47 ft. B. 68 ft. C. 75 ft.

D. 80 ft. - ANS c. 75 ft. True or False:

  1. The Emergency Locator Transmitter is located in the forward section of the aircraft. - ANS False True or False:
  2. The cockpit voice recorder system is located in the aft section of the airplane. - ANS True True or False:
  3. The back-up tuning unit maintains the frequencies set on COM 1 and NAV 1, and permits manual tuning should the RTUs fail. - ANS True True or False:
  4. AHRS provides attitude gyro, directional gyro and 3-axis rate/accelerometer data to various airplane systems. - ANS True True or False:
  5. during a winds hear caution, escape guidance is provided automatically. - ANS False
  6. What is the purpose of the EMER/NORM switch on the captain's ACP? a. Sets the transponder code to 7700 b. Establishes communication when the oxygen masks are in use c. Bypasses the electronic circuits of the integrating system and connects the captain's headset to VHF 1 and NAV 1. d. Renders the aural warning system inoperative - ANS c. Bypasses the electronic circuits of the integrating system and connects the captain's headset to VHF 1 and NAV
  7. Which statement is true regarding the priority of the PA system? a. The pilot has the highest priority b. The flight attendant can interrupt the entertainment system and the pilot c. The flight attendant has the highest priority d. There is no priority to the PA system - ANS a. The pilot has the highest priority
  8. How is the volume of the PA adjusted? a. The PA volume knob on either ACP b. Automatically with an engine or the APU running c. The PA volume knob at the flight attendant station d. There is no volume adjustment - ANS b. automatically with an engine or the APU running
  9. While on the RTU main page for COM 1, the pilot forgets to select "return," what will be the outcome? a. COM 1 will be inoperative until "return" is selected

a. 2000 b. 2250 c. 2500 d. 3000 - ANS c. 2500

  1. Static and pilot port inputs to each ADC provides information for: a. TAT b. Airspeed c. Altitude d. All of the above e. Both b and c - ANS e. Both b and c
  2. Where is the standby compass located in the flight compartment? A. Below the overhead panel B. On the center pedestal C. On the observer's station D. On primary flight display - ANS a. below the overhead panel
  3. In the event of a PFD failure, the PFD format may be displayed on the adjacent MFD by actuation of the _____ switch. a. MFD format selector b. Display reversionary selector c. TCAS d. None of the above - ANS b. Display reversionary selector
  4. The EFIS system in the CRJ consists of __________ electronic displays. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 - ANS c. 4
  5. What information is displayed on the Primary Flight Displays (PFDs)? a. Airspeed and altitude b. Engine indications c. Flight mode annunciation d. All of the above e. Both a and c - ANS e. Both a and c
  6. How can V1 be set to be displayed on both PFD's? a. Though the reference speed knob on the Air Data Reference Panel b. It is automatically calculated and displayed by the FMS C. By selecting V-Speeds on the Display Control Panel D. Through the reference speed knob on the Flight Control Panel e. ACARS Aero data function does it automatically - ANS a. Though the reference speed knob on the Air Data Reference Panel
  1. Cross-side NAV data be displayed on the following pages by pushing the NAV SOURCE button? a. FMS and RADAR b. FMS and HIS c. HSI and NAV SECTOR D. NAV SECTOR and FMS PLAN MAP - ANS c. HSI and NAV SECTOR
  2. The pilot static system provides input to: a. ADC 1 and ADC 2 b. Stall Protection System c. CPAM and the standby air data system (ADS) d. All of the above e. Both a and c - ANS d. All of the above
  3. ADC 2 receives normal pilot static inputs from: a. P1, P2 and S b. P1, S1 and S c. P2 and S d. All three pilot static systems - ANS b. P2, S1 and S
  4. The CPAM receives static input from a. S b. S c. S d. All three static systems - ANS c. S
  5. How is the MDA display removed from the PFD? a. Selecting MDA to zero b. Pressing the DH/MDA knob c. Turning the outer collar of the DH/MDA knob d. Pressing the HPA/IN pushbutton - ANS b. pressing the DH/MDA knob
  6. What is the indication of a valid radio altimeter test? A. 50 ft. AGL is displayed on both the digital and analog readouts b. An audio warning of "50 feet" is heard C. 100 ft. AGL is displayed on both the digital and analog readouts D. 50 ft. MSL is displayed on the altimeter - ANS a. 50 ft. AGL is displayed on both the digital and analog readouts
  7. How wide is the speed bug? a. Approximately ½ inch B. 5 knots C. 10 knots D. 15 knots - ANS c. 10 knots
  8. In what condition will the PFD deciliter?

a. Other aircraft b. Terrain c. Clouds d. Both a and b - ANS b. Terrain

  1. The ______ is an airborne system that interrogates ATC transponders in nearby airplanes to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats. a. TCAN b. TCAS c. AHRS d. None of the above - ANS b. TCAS
  2. Where is the radar control panel mounted? a. Pilot's side panel b. Co-pilot's side panel c. Overhead panel d. Center pedestal - ANS d. Center pedestal
  3. Each PFD has the primary function of pictorially showing: a. Flight director commands b. Aircraft attitude c. Flight control system annunciations d. All of the above - ANS d. All of the above
  4. How are the two VHF navigation receivers controlled? a. The RTUs b. The DCUs c. The GPS d. The MFDs - ANS a. The RTUs
  5. Winds hear warnings are generated by the: a. ECU's b. DCU's c. Basic GPWS mode 3 d. EGPWS mode 7 - ANS d. EGPWS mode 7
  6. An audio message of "DON'T SINK" is generated when: a. An excessive sink rate is encountered on landing b. The aircraft is 2 dots below the glideslope c. Aircraft altitude decreases immediately after takeoff or during a missed approach d. On approach with the gear down and flaps up - ANS c. Aircraft altitude decreases immediately after takeoff or during a missed approach True or False:
  7. Pressing of the TOGA switch will disengage the autopilot. - ANS True

True or False:

  1. Auto changeover between IAS mode and Mach mode occurs as the aircraft ascends or descends through 31,000 ft. - ANS False True or False:
  2. Encountering winds hear or a stall warning will disengage the autopilot. - ANS True True or False:
  3. The lateral take-off mode generates a 15 degree pitch up command while on the ground. - ANS False True or False:
  4. When the vertical speed mode switch is pressed, the vertical speed reference is synchronized to the current vertical speed - ANS True True or False:
  5. Operating the stabilizer trim lever switches on the pilot's control wheel will disconnect the autopilot, if engaged - ANS True True or False:
  6. Pressing the stab trim disconnect button on the yoke will cause the autopilot to automatically disengage. - ANS False True or False:
  7. The autopilot responds to commands from the flight director. - ANS True
  8. Select one way in which the autopilot can be manually disengaged. a. Pressing the MACH TRIM disengage swithlight b. Moving the AIL TRIM switches c. Pressing either TOGA switch on the throttles - ANS c. Pressing either TOGA switch on the throttles
  9. What information is displayed by the flight mode annunciator (FMA)? a. EICAS failure messages b. altitude preselected C. flight management computer initialization modes D. flight director modes - ANS d. flight director modes
  10. The primary function of the IAPS (Integrated Avionics Processing) circuitry is to: A. process instantaneous, ambient pilot static signals to digital format B. provide a common data bus from which the aircraft computers communicate with other aircraft electronic components C. provide the power source for analog autopilot sensors D. provide the power source for the air data computer - ANS b. provide a common data bus from which the aircraft computers communicate with other aircraft electronic components
  1. Two green lights located on either side of each mode button on the FCP: A. Indicate which modes are captured b. Indicate the FCCs have acknowledged the request c. Indicate that the autopilot is on d. All of the above e. None of the above - ANS b. Indicate the FCCs have acknowledged the request
  2. What will pressing the course select knob on the FCP accomplish? a. Selects a different nav. source b. Automatically selects the inbound course for an ILS c. Causes the course pointer and digital readout to indicate the zero deviation (direct) d. Nothing - ANS c. causes the course pointer and digital readout to indicate the zero deviation (direct)
  3. Pressing the FD SYNC button will do what? a. Synchronize FD1 and FD2 if a comparator problem exists b. Select the same vertical and lateral modes for the pilot and copilot FMAs c. Synchronizes the FD command bars to the aircrafts current vertical and lateral values d. Synchronize the autopilot to the flight director - ANS c. Synchronizes the FD command bars to the aircrafts current vertical and lateral values
  4. Which heading will the (TO/TO) hold? a. The heading selected by the heading bug b. The aircraft heading at the movement of pressing the TOGA button c. The heading at the moment of weight off wheels d. No heading is held, TO be wings level only - ANS c. The heading at the moment of weight off wheels
  5. How will an engine failure affect the takeoff mode (TO/TO)? a. Pitch commands will be 15 degrees nose up b. Pitch will be commanded to maintain V c. Pitch commands will be lowered to 10 degrees nose up d. Engine failures have no effect on takeoff mode - ANS c. Pitch commands will be lowered to 10 degrees nose up
  6. When performing a localizer back course approach, the pilot should: a. Select the front course using the course select knob b. Select the back course using the course select knob c. Press the B/C button on the FCP d. Both a and c are correct - ANS d. Both a and c are correct
  7. Above what altitude will half bank mode be selected automatically? A. 15,000 Ft. B. 31,000 Ft. C. 31,600 Ft. D. 42,000 Ft. - ANS c. 31,600 Ft.
  1. During an initial climb, the flight crew has 5,000 Ft. set in the altitude selector. The pilot has noted an ALTS CAP annunciation on his/her FMA. At that moment, ATC clears the flight to 10,000 Ft. which was immediately set in the altitude selector. If no other changes are made, at what altitude will the aircraft level off? A. 5,000 Ft. B. 10,000 Ft. c. The final altitude in the filed flight plan d. The aircraft will continue to climb until the ALT button is pressed in. - ANS a. 5, Ft.
  2. Pressing the SPEED button twice on the FCP will: a. Select the DES or CLB mode b. Select the IAS or Mach mode c. Select the CLB mode only d. Deselect the speed mode - ANS b. Select the IAS or Mach mode
  3. Each click on the vertical speed wheel equates too approximately: A. 100 fpm B. 200 fpm C. 500 fpm D. 1,000 fpm - ANS a. 100 fpm
  4. Choose only the following conditions that must be met in order for the autopilot to engage: a. At least one yaw damper must be engaged B. Both FCC's must be operational c. Both AHRS must be available and one ADC must be available d. All of the above e. Both a and c - ANS d. All of the above
  5. The autopilot servomotors control what: a. The right aileron b. The left elevator c. The rudder d. Both a and b are correct - ANS d. Both a and b are correct
  6. Of the following, which will disengage the autopilot? a. Activating the stab trim switches b. Pressing the AP ENG button on the FCP c. Pressing the YD DISC button d. All of the above - ANS d. All of the above
  7. What is the lowest altitude that the autopilot can be used on a non-precision approach? a. 600 AGL

d. 50 AGL - ANS b. 400 AGL

  1. Which Auto-Flight Control System modes generate both lateral and vertical guidance? a. Takeoff, Go-around, and Approach b. Go-around, Navigation, and Approach c. Pitch and Roll d. Approach, Navigation, and Back Course - ANS a. Takeoff, Go-around, and Approach True or False:
  2. The APU is controlled by the ECU during start-up operations only. - ANS False True or False:
  3. The APU control system ensures that priority is given to electrical loads by increasing bleed air flow when exhaust gas temperature limits are approached. - ANS False True or False:
  4. The APU will automatically shut down on the ground with the loss of oil pressure or high oil temperature. - ANS True True or False:
  5. The APU will automatically shut down any time an APU fire is detected. - ANS True True or False:
  6. If the APU experiences an over speed condition in flight, it will automatically shut down - ANS True True or False:
  7. If the APU experiences a low oil pressure condition in flight, it will automatically shut down. - ANS False True or False:
  8. The Main and APU batteries can be charged through external DC power. - ANS False True or False:
  9. Battery chargers, powered by the DC utility busses, maintain the main and APU batteries in a charged condition. - ANS False True or False:
  10. The ADG bus supplies AC power to the AC essential bus. - ANS True True or False:
  11. The ADG will supply electrical DC power to the DC essential bus and battery bus through ESS TRU 1. - ANS True

True or False:

  1. Engine or APU generators will be tripped off and removed from the BUS system in the event of bus over-current. - ANS True True or False:
  2. The AC AVAIL / IN USE switch light in the External Services panel is identical in appearance, use and function to the AC AVAIL / IN USE switch light in the flight deck. - ANS False
  3. Boarding lights are controlled by? a. A switch on the forward Flight Attendant's panel b. Dome light switch in the flight deck c. A switch on the aft Flight Attendant's panel d. A switch on the external services panel - ANS a. A switch on the forward Flight Attendant's panel
  4. In AUTO mode, illumination of the passenger signs is linked to? a. Flap position b. Landing gear position c. Cabin Altitude d. All of the above - ANS d. All of the above
  5. All interior and exterior emergency lights illuminate? a. When the switch is in the ON position b. When the switch is in the ARM position and power to either ESS DC BUS or ESS AC BUS is lost c. When the switch is in any position and ESS DC BUS or ESS AC BUS is lost d. When the switch is in the OFF position and ESS DC BUS or ESS AC BUS is lost e. Both a and b - ANS e. Both a and b
  6. Wing inspection lights are? a. Used to check the trailing edge of the wing for leaks b. Used to check the leading edge of the wing for possible ice build-up C. Used by maintenance personnel only d. Used to check the trailing edge of the wing for possible ice build-up - ANS b. used to check the leading edge of the wing for possible ice build-up
  7. Selecting the emergency light switch in the flight deck to ON will? a. Display an EMER LTS ON red message b. Display an EMER LTS ON amber message c. Display an EMER LTS ON green message d. Display an EMER LTS ON white message - ANS d. Display an EMER LTS ON white message
  8. The emergency lighting system is powered by _____ 28-volt DC rechargeable battery packs.