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Question 1. Which of the following best describes the AWS Shared Responsibility Model? A) AWS manages all security, including customer data. B) Customers manage physical security of data centers. C) AWS secures the cloud infrastructure, while customers secure what they put in the cloud. D) Customers are responsible for network latency. Answer: C Explanation: In the Shared Responsibility Model, AWS is responsible for protecting the underlying infrastructure (hardware, software, facilities), and customers are responsible for securing their workloads, data, and configurations. Question 2. What is the primary benefit of AWS’s pay‑as‑you‑go pricing model? A) Fixed monthly cost regardless of usage. B) Ability to purchase hardware upfront. C) Paying only for the resources actually consumed. D) Unlimited free storage. Answer: C Explanation: Pay‑as‑you‑go lets customers be billed based on actual usage, reducing waste and aligning costs with demand. Question 3. Which AWS service provides a fully managed NoSQL database? A) Amazon RDS B) Amazon DynamoDB C) Amazon Redshift D) Amazon Aurora Answer: B Explanation: DynamoDB is a fully managed key‑value and document NoSQL database service. Question 4. An organization needs to enforce least‑privilege access for its developers. Which IAM feature should they primarily use?
A) IAM Groups B) IAM Policies attached to Users C) IAM Roles with permission boundaries D) Root account access keys Answer: C Explanation: Permission boundaries allow you to set the maximum permissions that a role can have, helping enforce least‑privilege. Question 5. Which AWS pricing model offers the lowest price for compute workloads that can be interrupted? A) On‑Demand Instances B) Reserved Instances C) Spot Instances D) Savings Plans Answer: C Explanation: Spot Instances let you bid on unused EC2 capacity at steep discounts, but they can be terminated with a short notice. Question 6. What is an AWS Region? A) A collection of edge locations for CDN. B) A physical location of a single data center. C) A geographical area containing multiple Availability Zones. D) A set of AWS accounts under an organization. Answer: C Explanation: A Region is a geographic area that contains multiple isolated Availability Zones. Question 7. Which service is used to centrally manage billing across multiple AWS accounts? A) AWS Budgets B) AWS Organizations C) AWS Cost Explorer
Question 11. A company wants to encrypt data at rest in Amazon S3 without managing keys. Which feature should they use? A) Server‑Side Encryption with AWS‑Managed Keys (SSE‑S3) B) Server‑Side Encryption with Customer‑Provided Keys (SSE‑C) C) Client‑Side Encryption D) AWS KMS with custom keys only Answer: A Explanation: SSE‑S3 uses AWS‑managed keys, removing the need for customers to manage encryption keys. Question 12. Which AWS service provides a managed DDoS protection for web applications? A) AWS WAF B) AWS Shield Standard C) AWS GuardDuty D) Amazon Inspector Answer: B Explanation: AWS Shield Standard automatically protects against common DDoS attacks for all AWS customers. Question 13. What does the AWS Well‑Architected Framework’s “Performance Efficiency” pillar focus on? A) Cost optimization B) Operational excellence C) Selecting the right resources and scaling appropriately D) Security controls Answer: C Explanation: Performance Efficiency emphasizes using appropriate resources and scaling to meet system demand.
Question 14. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to interact with AWS services? A) AWS Management Console B) AWS Command Line Interface (CLI) C) AWS CloudShell D) AWS Physical Console Answer: D Explanation: There is no “Physical Console”; interaction is via web console, CLI, SDKs, or CloudShell. Question 15. An AWS customer wants to run a relational database with automatic backups, patching, and scaling. Which service should they choose? A) Amazon Aurora Serverless B) Amazon RDS C) Amazon DynamoDB D) Amazon Redshift Answer: B Explanation: Amazon RDS provides managed relational databases with automated backup, patching, and scaling options. Question 16. Which AWS service helps you visualize and analyze your cost and usage data? A) AWS Budgets B) AWS Cost Explorer C) AWS Trusted Advisor D) AWS Config Answer: B Explanation: Cost Explorer provides interactive visualizations of cost and usage over time. Question 17. What is the primary purpose of Amazon VPC? A) To provide a globally distributed CDN. B) To isolate network resources in a virtual private cloud.
Explanation: “Always Free” provides limited usage of services (e.g., 1 GB S3) for the lifetime of the account. Question 21. Which AWS service provides a managed, highly available DNS service? A) Amazon Route 53 B) AWS Direct Connect C) AWS CloudTrail D) AWS Systems Manager Answer: A Explanation: Route 53 is a scalable DNS and domain registration service. Question 22. What is the main advantage of using AWS CloudFormation? A) Real‑time data analytics. B) Automated infrastructure provisioning as code. C) Monitoring application performance. D) Managing user passwords. Answer: B Explanation: CloudFormation lets you define and provision AWS resources using templates, enabling IaC. Question 23. Which feature of Amazon S3 provides automatic tiering of objects based on access patterns? A) S3 One Zone‑IA B) S3 Intelligent‑Tiering C) S3 Glacier D) S3 Standard Answer: B Explanation: Intelligent‑Tiering automatically moves data between frequent and infrequent access tiers. Question 24. A company needs to run containerized workloads with minimal operational overhead. Which service should they choose?
A) Amazon EC B) AWS Elastic Beanstalk C) Amazon ECS (Fargate) D) AWS Batch Answer: C Explanation: ECS with Fargate runs containers without managing servers. Question 25. Which AWS service helps detect anomalous activity in your AWS accounts? A) AWS Config B) AWS CloudTrail C) Amazon GuardDuty D) AWS Trusted Advisor Answer: C Explanation: GuardDuty analyzes logs and network traffic to identify threats. Question 26. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “stateless” application design? A) It stores session information on the server. B. It relies on local disk for user data. C. It can be scaled horizontally without shared state. D. It requires a single Availability Zone. Answer: C Explanation: Stateless apps do not retain session data, enabling easy horizontal scaling. Question 27. Which AWS pricing model provides a discount in exchange for a commitment to a consistent amount of usage (measured in $/hour) for 1 or 3 years? A) Savings Plans B) Reserved Instances C) Spot Instances D) On‑Demand
B) Amazon EKS C) AWS Fargate D) AWS Batch Answer: B Explanation: Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS) runs Kubernetes control plane and worker nodes as a managed service. Question 32. What is the purpose of AWS Identity Federation? A) To create IAM users for each employee. B) To allow external identities (e.g., corporate AD) to access AWS resources without creating IAM users. C) To encrypt data in transit. D) To replicate data across regions. Answer: B Explanation: Federation enables single sign‑on using external identity providers. Question 33. Which AWS service provides a highly durable, low‑latency object storage? A) Amazon EFS B) Amazon S C) Amazon EBS D) AWS Snowball Answer: B Explanation: S3 is designed for 99.999999999% (11 9’s) durability and low latency. Question 34. Which AWS feature helps you enforce cost controls by setting maximum spend limits across an organization? A) AWS Budgets B) AWS Cost Explorer C) Service Control Policies (SCPs) D) AWS Trusted Advisor
Answer: A Explanation: Budgets let you define thresholds and receive alerts when spend exceeds them. Question 35. Which of the following is a regional service rather than a global service? A) Amazon Route 53 B) AWS IAM C) Amazon CloudFront D) Amazon S Answer: D Explanation: S3 buckets reside in a specific region; IAM, Route 53, and CloudFront are global. Question 36. Which storage option provides block‑level storage that can be attached to EC instances? A) Amazon S B) Amazon EFS C) Amazon EBS D) Amazon Glacier Answer: C Explanation: EBS volumes are block storage devices that can be attached to EC2. Question 37. Which of the following best explains “Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)”? A) Only the initial purchase price of hardware. B) The sum of all direct and indirect costs over the lifecycle of a solution. C) The amount saved by using Spot Instances. D) The cost of AWS support plans. Answer: B Explanation: TCO includes acquisition, operation, maintenance, and other lifecycle costs. Question 38. What is the primary benefit of using Amazon CloudFront?
D) Encrypting data at rest. Answer: B Explanation: Operational Excellence focuses on automating procedures, monitoring, and continual improvement. Question 42. Which of the following services is a fully managed, petabyte‑scale data lake solution? A) Amazon RDS B) Amazon Redshift C) AWS Lake Formation D) Amazon Athena Answer: C Explanation: Lake Formation simplifies creation, security, and management of data lakes. Question 43. Which AWS service provides a managed, scalable message queuing system? A) Amazon SNS B) Amazon SQS C) AWS Step Functions D) Amazon Kinesis Data Streams Answer: B Explanation: SQS is a fully managed message queue service. Question 44. What is the purpose of AWS Config? A) To provide cost forecasting. B) To monitor and record configuration changes of AWS resources. C) To manage IAM passwords. D) To accelerate data transfer. Answer: B Explanation: Config tracks resource configurations and evaluates them against desired states.
Question 45. Which of the following is a benefit of using AWS Organizations with Service Control Policies (SCPs)? A) Automatically encrypts all data. B) Enforces permission guardrails across member accounts. C) Provides free support tickets. D) Eliminates the need for IAM users. Answer: B Explanation: SCPs set permission boundaries that apply to all accounts in the organization. Question 46. Which AWS service is best suited for real‑time processing of streaming data? A) Amazon S B) Amazon Kinesis Data Streams C) AWS Glue D) Amazon RDS Answer: B Explanation: Kinesis Data Streams ingest and process high‑volume streaming data in real time. Question 47. What does “multi‑AZ deployment” improve? A) Data transfer speed across continents. B) Application latency for a single user. C) High availability and fault tolerance. D. Cost savings by using a single datacenter. Answer: C Explanation: Deploying resources across multiple AZs reduces impact of an AZ failure. Question 48. Which AWS service provides a managed environment for building, testing, and deploying web applications without managing servers? A) AWS Elastic Beanstalk B) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
Question 52. An organization wants to enforce that all data stored in S3 is encrypted using a specific customer‑managed KMS key. Which S3 feature should be used? A) Bucket ACLs B) S3 Object Lock C) Default encryption with a KMS key D) S3 Versioning Answer: C Explanation: Default encryption can be set to use a specific customer‑managed KMS key for all new objects. Question 53. Which AWS pricing model provides a predictable, discounted rate for a specific instance family for a 1‑ or 3‑year term? A) Spot Instances B) Savings Plans (Compute) C) Reserved Instances D) On‑Demand Answer: C Explanation: Reserved Instances lock a specific instance type/region for a term, delivering a discount. Question 54. Which AWS service can be used to create a private connection between an on‑premises data center and AWS? A) Amazon VPC Peering B) AWS Direct Connect C) AWS VPN CloudHub D) Amazon CloudFront Answer: B Explanation: Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network link to AWS. Question 55. Which AWS tool helps you estimate the cost of a new architecture before deployment?
A) AWS Cost Explorer B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Pricing Calculator D) AWS Trusted Advisor Answer: C Explanation: The Pricing Calculator lets you model services and predict monthly costs. Question 56. Which of the following is a characteristic of Amazon Aurora? A) It is a NoSQL database. B) It is compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL. C) It runs only on dedicated hosts. D) It stores data in object storage. Answer: B Explanation: Aurora is a relational database compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL. Question 57. What does “elastic load balancing” (ELB) provide? A) Automatic scaling of compute instances. B) Distribution of incoming traffic across multiple targets. C) Encryption of data at rest. D) Monitoring of API calls. Answer: B Explanation: ELB routes traffic to healthy targets, improving availability and fault tolerance. Question 58. Which AWS service helps you enforce compliance by continuously evaluating the configuration of AWS resources? A) AWS Config Rules B) AWS CloudTrail C) AWS Shield D) AWS WAF
Question 62. What is the primary purpose of Amazon GuardDuty? A) To manage IAM users. B) To provide DDoS protection. C) To detect malicious or unauthorized behavior using machine learning. D) To automate backups. Answer: C Explanation: GuardDuty continuously monitors for threats using ML and threat intel. Question 63. Which AWS service enables you to store and retrieve any amount of data at any time, with a simple web interface? A) Amazon EFS B) Amazon S C) Amazon EBS D) AWS Snowball Answer: B Explanation: S3 offers simple object storage with a web interface. Question 64. Which of the following statements about AWS Spot Instances is true? A) They guarantee 100 % uptime. B) They can be terminated with a two‑minute warning. C) They are billed per second with no discounts. D) They cannot be used for production workloads. Answer: B Explanation: Spot Instances can be reclaimed by AWS with a two‑minute notification. Question 65. Which AWS service provides a managed workflow orchestration service for serverless applications? A) AWS Step Functions B) Amazon SQS
C) AWS Lambda@Edge D) AWS Batch Answer: A Explanation: Step Functions coordinate multiple AWS services into serverless workflows. Question 66. Which AWS service is primarily used for centralized logging of API calls across an AWS account? A) AWS CloudTrail B) Amazon CloudWatch Logs C) AWS Config D) AWS Trusted Advisor Answer: A Explanation: CloudTrail records API activity for auditing and compliance. Question 67. Which of the following is a benefit of using AWS Organizations with consolidated billing? A) Automatic migration of workloads. B) Single payment method for all linked accounts. C) Free usage of all services. D) Elimination of IAM. Answer: B Explanation: Consolidated billing aggregates charges for all accounts into one invoice. Question 68. Which AWS service can be used to automatically archive objects from S3 Standard to Glacier based on lifecycle rules? A) S3 Versioning B) S3 Transfer Acceleration C) S3 Lifecycle Policies D) S3 Cross‑Region Replication Answer: C
