BIOM2402 Principles of Pharmacology Exam Preparation Questions and ANSWER Latest Top Rate,, Exams of Pharmacology

BIOM2402 Principles of Pharmacology Exam Preparation Questions and ANSWER Latest Top Rate,2025/2026 Exams of Pharmacology|Graded A+|Certain Success. BIOM2402 Principles of Pharmacology Exam Preparation Questions and ANSWER Latest Top Rate,2025/2026 Exams of Pharmacology|Graded A+|Certain Success.

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BIOM2402 Principles of Pharmacology Exam Preparation
Questions and ANSWER Latest Top Rate,2025/2026
Exams of Pharmacology|Graded A+|Certain Success.
1. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion is known as
A. pharmacotherapeutics
B. pharmacodynamics
C. pharmacokinetics
D. pharmacy
E. posology - ANSWER-C
2. The medical situation when a particular drug should not be
administered is referred to as
A. side effect
B. adverse effect
C. drug allergy
D. contraindication
E. antagonism - ANSWER-D
3. An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is
known as
A. toxic effect
B. antagonism
C. idiosyncrasy
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BIOM2402 Principles of Pharmacology Exam Preparation

Questions and ANSWER Latest Top Rate,2025/

Exams of Pharmacology|Graded A+|Certain Success.

  1. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as A. pharmacotherapeutics B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacy

E. posology - ANSWER -C

  1. The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as A. side effect B. adverse effect C. drug allergy D. contraindication

E. antagonism - ANSWER -D

  1. An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as A. toxic effect B. antagonism C. idiosyncrasy

D. side effect

E. drug allergy - ANSWER -C

  1. The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the A. generic name B. over-the-counter name C. trade name D. chemical name

E. none of these - ANSWER -C

  1. The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the A. duration of action B. onset of action C. ceiling effect D. maximal response

E. ceiling effect - ANSWER -B

  1. A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a A. poison B. OTC drug

B. drug allergy C. teratogenicity D. carcinogenicity

E. all of these - ANSWER -E

  1. The time a drug continues to produce its effect is its A. ED B. maximal response C. ceiling effect D. onset of action

E. duration of action - ANSWER -E

. The drug administration route demonstrating the slowest onset of action is A. inhalation B. transdermal C. intramuscular D. sublingual

E. intravenous - ANSWER -B

In order for drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be A. ionized

B. positively charged C. water soluble D. lipid soluble

E. negatively charged - ANSWER -D

  1. First-pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the A. kidney B. blood vessels C. liver D. heart

E. adipose tissue - ANSWER -C

  1. Drug X has a half-life of 6 hours. How much drug is left in the body 18 hours after an IV injection of 1200 milligrams (mg)? -

ANSWER -B

  1. Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as Pregnancy Category A. B B. C C. D D. X

E. NR - ANSWER -D= x

E. gender - ANSWER -D

  1. Which FDA pregnancy category would appear to be the safest for a developing fetus? A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

E. Category X - ANSWER -A

  1. A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called suicide substrates. orphan drugs. protein drugs. competitive antagonists.

enantiomers. - ANSWER -A

  1. A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the selectivity of a given drug is A) its target receptor ligand affinity. B) its target receptor cell-type distribution. C) its ionic interactions. D) its hydrogen bonding.

E) its intrinsic activity. - ANSWER -B

  1. A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called idiosyncrasy. tachyphylaxis. heterologous desensitization. refractoriness.

receptor downregulation. - ANSWER -B

  1. The main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha- receptors is A. increased heart rate B. bronchodilation C. vasoconstriction D. contraction of urinary bladder

E. increased force of myocardial contraction - ANSWER -C

  1. The pharmacologic effect of IV metaraminol (an alpha-1 drug) is A. vasodilation B. vasoconstriction C. cardiac stimulation D. cardiac depression

E. bronchodilation - ANSWER -B

  1. Epinephrine stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors

E. all of these - ANSWER -E

  1. At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors

E. all of these - ANSWER -D

  1. Metoprolol is classified as a(n) A. alpha-blocker B. nonselective beta-blocker C. selective beta-1 blocker D. adrenergic neuronal blocker

E. selective beta-2 blocker - ANSWER -C

  1. The mechanism of action of methyldopa is A. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending B. alpha-1 receptor blocker C. beta-1 receptor blocker D. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending

E. none of these - ANSWER -D

  1. The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is
  1. Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as A. alpha- B. nicotinic-neural (Nn) C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm) D. muscarinic

E. ganglionic - ANSWER -D

  1. Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs. A. increased heart rate B. increased gastrointestinal motility C. decreased urination D. pupillary dilation

E. bronchodilation - ANSWER -B

  1. Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n) A. direct-acting cholinergic drug B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug

E. ganglionic blocker - ANSWER -B

  1. Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include A. slow pulse rate B. increased urination C. diarrhea D. sweating

E. all of these - ANSWER -E

  1. Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except A. bronchodilation B. increased heart rate C. increased gastrointestinal activity D. decreased respiratory secretions

E. dry mouth - ANSWER -C

  1. The antidote for atropine poisoning is A. scopolamine B. bethanechol C. neostigmine D. physostigmine

E. dicyclomine - ANSWER -D

D. there are two groups in this class: either depolarizing agents or nondepolarizing agents E. botulinumtoxinA rapidly attaches to these receptors -

ANSWER -D

  1. Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions? A. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly B. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver C. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors D. longer duration of action than vecuronium

E. stimulation of presynaptic ACH release - ANSWER -C

  1. Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants A. include dantrolene and cisatracurium B. inhibit or reduce activity within the spinal cord (intraneuronal), interrupting the central stimulus to muscle contraction C. can only be given parenterally D. cause systemic release of histamine, leading to hypotension

E. counteract the effect of botulinumtoxin B - ANSWER -B

  1. Skeletal muscle relaxants may alter control of respiration because

A. the diaphragm is a skeletal muscle B. succinylcholine stimulates the respiratory centers in the brain C. like dantrolene, all muscle relaxants inhibit the action of norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction D. relaxation of the muscles in the lower extremities pulls blood away from the lungs E. all skeletal muscle relaxants interfere with calcium ion storage

in the muscle - ANSWER -A

  1. Select the drug or condition(s) that decrease the effects of neuromuscular blockers. A. neomycin B. corticosteroids C. general anesthetics like isoflurane D. alcohol

E. myasthenia gravis and spinal cord lesions - ANSWER -B

  1. Which of the following is a way in which skeletal muscles are relaxed? A. blockage of conduction in the spinal cord B. inhibiting nerve transmission C. blockage of the Nm receptors D. decreasing ACH in the neuromuscular junction

E. all of these - ANSWER -E

E) a rise in cytosolic K+.

F) a rise in cytosolic Mg2+. - ANSWER -C

  1. A 17-year-old girl with suspected intrinsic asthma but nearly normal results on spirometry and flow volume testing takes a methacholine provocative test. The mechanism of action of methacholine most closely resembles that of hemicholinium. acetylcholine. edrophonium. succinylcholine.

neostigmine. - ANSWER -B

  1. The muscarinic receptor that couples to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and plays a key role in cholinergic input to the heart is classified as muscarinic-M1 receptor. muscarinic-M2 receptor. muscarinic-M3 receptor. muscarinic-M4 receptor.

muscarinic-M5 receptor. - ANSWER -B

  1. A 25-year old female presents with delirium, hyperthermia, and symptoms of central anticholinergic intoxication. She has

attended a ìwitches' conventî and ingested some herbal extracts including fruits of the species ìAtropa belladonna.î As one component of her treatment, she receives a dose of physostigmine. Refer to the case above. Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine because A) it is a nonpolar compound that penetrates the CNS more easily than neostigmine. B) it has a shorter half-life than neostigmine, making it more useful for emergency treatment. C) it has a longer half-life than neostigmine, better matching the half-life of atropine. D) it is eliminated via the kidneys, and dosage is not critical with compromised liver function. E) it is eliminated via the liver, and dosage is not critical with

compromised renal function. - ANSWER -A

  1. Which of the following is a correct statement? A. opioid analgesics produce little or no respiration depression with long-term use of analgesic doses B. opioid antagonists include endorphins C. all drugs in the opioid analgesic group are controlled substances, Schedule III D. in low doses, opioids produce nausea and vomiting

E. fentanyl is a partial opioid antagonist - ANSWER -D