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Question 1. Which component is NOT included in the classic 2-compartment body composition model? A) Fat mass B) Bone mineral content C) Fat-free mass D) Total body water Answer: B Explanation: The 2-compartment model divides the body into fat mass and fat-free mass; bone mineral is part of the fat-free compartment, not a separate compartment. Question 2. In the 4-compartment model, which of the following is considered a separate compartment? A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Vitamin D D) Insulin Answer: A Explanation: The 4-compartment model separates body mass into fat, water, protein, and mineral (bone). Question 3. Essential fat for women is higher than for men because it supports which physiological function? A) Muscle hypertrophy B) Reproductive hormone synthesis C) Red blood cell production D) Skeletal growth
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Answer: B Explanation: Women require more essential fat to produce estrogen and support menstrual cycles and pregnancy. Question 4. Which type of adipose tissue is primarily responsible for non-shivering thermogenesis? A) White adipose tissue (WAT) B) Subcutaneous fat C) Brown adipose tissue (BAT) D) Visceral fat Answer: C Explanation: BAT contains abundant mitochondria with uncoupling protein-1, generating heat without muscle activity. Question 5. Visceral fat accumulation is most strongly associated with which health risk? A) Osteoporosis B) Hypertension C) Myopia D) Tendonitis Answer: B Explanation: Visceral fat releases inflammatory cytokines and free fatty acids that contribute to hypertension and cardiovascular disease. Question 6. Which of the following statements about Body Mass Index (BMI) is true for elite athletes? A) BMI accurately predicts body fat percentage in all athletes. B) High muscle mass can cause BMI to overestimate adiposity.
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A) Ambient temperature B) Skin color C) Examiner’s technique consistency D) Time of day Answer: C Explanation: Consistent site identification, pinch pressure, and caliper placement reduce intra-tester error. Question 10. Hydrostatic weighing estimates body density based on which physical principle? A) Boyle’s law B) Archimedes’ principle C) Bernoulli’s equation D) Newton’s third law Answer: B Explanation: The method measures water displacement when a subject is submerged, applying Archimedes’ principle. Question 11. In air displacement plethysmography, the equation P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ is used to calculate: A) Resting metabolic rate B) Body volume C) Bone mineral density D) Muscle glycogen content Answer: B Explanation: The pressure-volume relationship allows computation of body volume from air displacement.
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Question 12. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) differentiates tissues based on: A) Acoustic impedance B) X-ray attenuation at two energy levels C) Electrical conductivity D) Magnetic resonance signals Answer: B Explanation: DEXA uses two X-ray beams of different energies to separate bone mineral, lean tissue, and fat. Question 13. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) can be most compromised by: A) Low ambient humidity B) Recent vigorous exercise C) High dietary fiber intake D) Wearing metal jewelry Answer: B Explanation: Exercise shifts fluid from intracellular to extracellular compartments, altering impedance readings. Question 14. Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is best described as: A) Energy expended during intense exercise B) Energy needed for digestion of food C) Energy required for physiological functions at complete rest, post-absorptive state D) Energy used for non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) Answer: C
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Answer: C Explanation: NEAT encompasses all non-exercise movements such as pacing, typing, and posture maintenance. Question 18. Insulin promotes storage of nutrients by: A) Inhibiting lipoprotein lipase B) Stimulating glycogen synthase and lipogenesis C) Increasing glucagon release D) Blocking glucose transporter GLUT Answer: B Explanation: Insulin activates glycogen synthase in liver/muscle and lipogenic enzymes in adipose tissue. Question 19. Chronic elevation of cortisol is linked to increased accumulation of: A) Subcutaneous thigh fat B) Visceral abdominal fat C) Brown adipose tissue D) Intramuscular triglycerides only Answer: B Explanation: Cortisol promotes lipolysis in peripheral fat but encourages visceral fat deposition and insulin resistance. Question 20. Leptin levels are primarily reflective of: A) Short-term caloric intake B) Acute exercise stress C) Long-term body fat stores
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D) Glycogen depletion Answer: C Explanation: Leptin is secreted by adipocytes proportionally to total fat mass, signaling energy reserves to the brain. Question 21. Ghrelin is known as the “hunger hormone” because it: A) Increases after meals B) Suppresses appetite via the hypothalamus C) Peaks before meals, stimulating appetite D) Is produced only in the pancreas Answer: C Explanation: Ghrelin rises during fasting, signaling the hypothalamus to increase food intake. Question 22. Leucine is considered the most potent amino acid for stimulating: A) Gluconeogenesis B) Muscle protein synthesis via mTOR activation C) Fat oxidation D) Insulin resistance Answer: B Explanation: Leucine directly activates the mTOR pathway, a key regulator of muscle protein synthesis. Question 23. Mechanotransduction in skeletal muscle refers to: A) Conversion of mechanical tension into biochemical signals that promote hypertrophy B) Transport of oxygen across the sarcolemma
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B) Vitamin C C) Selenium D) Iron Answer: A Explanation: Magnesium acts as a cofactor for vitamin D-dependent enzymes and receptor activation. Question 27. During a bulking (hypertrophic) phase, the primary dietary goal is to: A) Maximize carbohydrate oxidation B) Achieve a caloric surplus while providing sufficient protein for muscle growth C) Minimize fat intake to <10% of total calories D) Restrict all fats to promote lean tissue Answer: B Explanation: A modest surplus supplies energy for new tissue synthesis, and protein supports muscle accretion. Question 28. Metabolic adaptation during prolonged calorie restriction is often termed: A) Hyperphagia B) Adaptive thermogenesis C) Glycogen sparing D) Lipolytic resistance Answer: B Explanation: The body reduces resting energy expenditure to conserve energy, a process called adaptive thermogenesis.
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Question 29. Which training variable most strongly influences myofibrillar hypertrophy? A) High repetitions with low load B) Low volume, high intensity (≥85% 1RM) C) Continuous low-intensity cardio D) Short rest intervals (<30 s) Answer: B Explanation: Heavy loads stimulate contractile protein accretion, characteristic of myofibrillar hypertrophy. Question 30. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy is primarily associated with: A) Increases in contractile protein density B) Greater accumulation of intramuscular glycogen and non-contractile elements C) Decreased mitochondrial density D) Higher neural drive Answer: B Explanation: Training with moderate loads and higher volumes expands the sarcoplasmic volume, raising muscle size without proportional strength gains. Question 31. Compound movements are preferred for maximizing metabolic demand because they: A) Isolate a single joint B) Recruit multiple muscle groups, increasing total energy expenditure C) Require only low loads D) Reduce heart rate response Answer: B
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D) Improved flexibility from simultaneous strength and cardio sessions Answer: B Explanation: Simultaneous high-volume endurance work can blunt strength and hypertrophy adaptations. Question 35. In the Transtheoretical Model, the stage where an individual is actively modifying behavior is called: A) Precontemplation B) Contemplation C) Preparation D) Action Answer: D Explanation: The Action stage involves concrete steps toward change, such as initiating a new training program. Question 36. Self-efficacy most directly predicts: A) Genetic potential for muscle growth B) Short-term hormonal fluctuations C) Persistence and adherence to a training/nutrition plan D) Baseline body composition Answer: C Explanation: Belief in one’s capability influences motivation and continued effort. Question 37. Sleep deprivation of less than 5 hours per night is associated with a decrease in which anabolic hormone? A) Cortisol B) Testosterone
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C) Insulin D) Thyroxine Answer: B Explanation: Short sleep reduces nocturnal testosterone secretion, impairing recovery and muscle protein synthesis. Question 38. Disruption of circadian rhythm can impair glucose metabolism by: A) Increasing insulin sensitivity B) Decreasing hepatic glucose output C) Altering cortisol rhythm leading to higher fasting glucose D) Enhancing GLUT4 translocation Answer: C Explanation: Misaligned circadian signals elevate nighttime cortisol, which raises hepatic gluconeogenesis and fasting glucose. Question 39. Orthorexia is best described as: A) An eating disorder focused on excessive calorie restriction B) An unhealthy obsession with “pure” or “clean” foods that interferes with normal functioning C) A fear of gaining weight leading to binge eating D) A compulsive need to exercise continuously Answer: B Explanation: Orthorexia involves rigid dietary rules centered on perceived healthfulness, potentially causing nutritional deficiencies.
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Answer: B Explanation: The Bod Pod measures the volume of air displaced when a person sits inside a sealed chamber. Question 43. In the context of body composition, the term “fat-free mass” includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Bone mineral B) Water C) Muscle protein D) Subcutaneous fat Answer: D Explanation: Fat-free mass comprises lean tissues; subcutaneous fat is part of the fat mass compartment. Question 44. Which of the following hormones directly stimulates lipolysis in adipocytes? A) Insulin B) Leptin C) Catecholamines (e.g., epinephrine) D) Growth hormone Answer: C Explanation: Catecholamines bind β-adrenergic receptors, activating hormone-sensitive lipase and promoting triglyceride breakdown. Question 45. The primary function of brown adipose tissue (BAT) in adult humans is: A. Long-term energy storage B. Thermogenesis via uncoupled respiration
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C. Production of estrogen D. Structural support of organs Answer: B Explanation: BAT contains mitochondria with uncoupling protein-1, generating heat instead of ATP. Question 46. Which skinfold site is included in the Jackson-Pollock 7-site protocol for women? A. Chest B. Triceps C. Abdomen D. Thigh Answer: B Explanation: The 7-site female protocol includes triceps, among other locations such as suprailiac and thigh. Question 47. When using BIA, why is it recommended to measure in a fasted, well-hydrated state? A. To increase skin conductivity B. To standardize fluid distribution and reduce variability C. To enhance muscle contraction during measurement D. To improve bone density estimation Answer: B Explanation: Hydration status affects electrical resistance; fasting minimizes recent fluid shifts. Question 48. Which component of TDEE is most variable day-to-day in an average adult?
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Question 51. The primary mechanism by which cortisol contributes to visceral fat accumulation is: A. Inhibiting lipoprotein lipase in peripheral fat B. Promoting adipocyte differentiation in the abdominal region C. Directly converting glucose to triglycerides in the liver D. Enhancing muscle glycogen synthesis Answer: B Explanation: Cortisol up-regulates enzymes that favor abdominal adipocyte proliferation and lipid storage. Question 52. Which hormone’s secretion is most acutely suppressed by acute resistance exercise? A. Ghrelin B. Leptin C. Insulin D. Growth hormone Answer: B Explanation: Acute resistance bouts transiently lower leptin levels, reflecting short-term energy deficit signaling. Question 53. In a periodized nutrition plan, the “cutting” phase primarily aims to: A. Maximize glycogen stores for endurance events B. Increase lean mass while maintaining a calorie surplus C. Reduce body fat while preserving muscle through a modest calorie deficit D. Eliminate all dietary fat Answer: C
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Explanation: Cutting involves a controlled deficit with sufficient protein to protect lean tissue. Question 54. Which of the following exercise modalities most effectively elevates excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) for 24-hour calorie burn? A. Steady-state jogging at 50% VO₂max for 60 min B. Low-intensity cycling for 45 min C. Sprint interval training (30 s all-out sprints with 4 min rest) D. Yoga flow for 30 min Answer: C Explanation: High-intensity intervals create a large metabolic disturbance, prolonging EPOC. Question 55. The “protein-to-fat storage ratio” (P-ratio) is most directly improved by: A. Increasing dietary fat while keeping protein constant B. Reducing carbohydrate intake below 20 g day⁻¹ C. Consuming adequate high-quality protein relative to total calories D. Eliminating all dairy products Answer: C Explanation: A higher proportion of protein supports lean tissue synthesis and reduces net fat storage. Question 56. During concurrent training, performing endurance work immediately after resistance sessions tends to: A. Enhance muscle hypertrophy B. Reduce the interference effect compared to separating sessions
