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BONTRAGER CHAPTER 1 SELF TEST
Which of the following is (are) not one of the four basic types of tissue in the human body? A. Integumentary D. Osseous B. Connective E. Muscular C. Nervous F. Epithelial - A O How many separate bones are found in the adult human body? A. 180 C. 206 B. 243 D. 257 - C Which one of the following systems distributes oxygen and nutrients to the cells of the body? A. Digestive C. Skeletal B. Circulatory D. Urinary - B Which one of the following systems maintains the acid-base balance in the body? A. Digestive C. Reproductive B. Urinary D. Circulatory - B Which one of the following systems is considered to be the largest organ system in the human body? A. Muscular C. Skeletal B. Endocrine D. Integumentary - D The two divisions of the human skeleton are A. Bony and Cartilaginous B. Axial and appendicular C. Vertebral and extremities D. integumentary and appendicular - B Which portion of the long bones is responsible for the production of the red blood cells? A. Spongy or cancellous B. Periosteum C. Hyaline D. Compact aspect - A What type of tissue covers the ends of the long bones? A. Spongy or cancellous B. Periosteum C. Hyaline and articular cartilage D. Compact aspect - C
The narrow space between the inner and outer table of the flat bones in the cranium is called the: A. Calvarium B. Periosteum C. Medullary portion D. Diploe - D What is the primary center for endochondral ossification in long bones? A. Diaphysis (shaft) B. Epiphyseal plate C. Epiphyses D. Medulla - A What is the name of secondary growth centers of endochondral ossification found in long bones? A. Diaphysis (shaft) B. Epiphyseal plate C. Epiphyses D. Metaphysis - C The aspect of the long bones where bone growth in length occurs is termed: A. Diaphysis (shaft) B. Epiphyseal plate C. Epiphyses D. Metaphysis - D The skull suture has the structural classification of _________________________________ joint. A. Fibrous B. Cartilaginous C. Synovial D. Diarthrosis - A The symphysis pubis has the structural classification of _________________________________ joint. A. Fibrous B. Cartilaginous C. Synovial D. Diarthrosis - B Which specific joint(s) is (are) the only true syndesmosis, amphiarthrodial, fibrous joint(s)? A. Joints between the roots of teeth and adjoining bone B. First carpometacarpal joint C. Distal Tibofibular joint D. Proximal and distal radioulnar joints - C
Which plane divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts? A. Midsagittal B. Transverse C. Midcornal D. Longitiudinal - C True/False The terms radiograph and image receptor refer to the same thing - False A longitudinal plane that divides the body into right and left parts is the: A. Coronal Plane B. Horizontal Plane C. Sagittal Plane D. Oblique Plane - C Define the following terms:
- Near the source or beginning
- Away from head end of the body
- Inside of something
- Increasing the angle of the joint
- Outward stress of the food
- Movement of an extremity away from the midline
- Turning palm downward
- A backward movement
- To move around in the form of a circle
- Toward the center
- Away from the source or beginning
- On the opposite side of the body - Proximal Caudad Interior Extension Eversion Abduction Pronation Retraction Circumduction Medial Distal Contralateral Define the following terms:
- Lying down in any position
- Head lower than the feet position
- Upright position, palms forward
- Top of the foot
- Frankfort horizontal plane
- A plane at right angle to the longitudinal plane
- Head higher than feet position
- Palm of hand
- Sole of foot
- Front half of body
- A plane that divides body into anterior and posterior halves
- A recumbent position with knees and hips flexed with support for legs - Recumbent Trendlenberg Anatomic Position Dorsum Pedis Base plane of skull Horizontal Plane Fowler's position Palmar Plantar Anterior Midcoronal Lithotomy The direction or path of the central ray of the x-ray beam defines the positioning term: A. Position B. View C. Perspective D. Projection - D A patient is placed in a recumbent position facing downward. The left side of the body is turned 30 degrees toward the image receptor. Which specific position has been performed? A. LAO B. Left Lateral decubitus C. LPO D. RAO - A A patient is placed into a recumbent position facing downward. The x-ray tube is directed horizontally and enters the left side and exits the right side of the body. An image receptor is placed against the right side of the patient. Which position is performed? A. Dorsal decubitus B. Left lateral decubitus C. Ventral decubitus D. Right lateral decubitus - C A patient is erect with her back to the IR. The CR enters the anterior aspect and exits the posterior aspect of the body. Which position is performed?
B. Decubitus C. Axial D. Trendelenburg - A What is the name of the specific projection in which the CR enter the left side of the chest and exits the opposite side? A. Parietoacanthial B. Axial C. Transthoracic D. Lordotic - C What is the specific projection that enters the posterior aspect of the skull and exits the acanthion? A. Acanthioparietal B. Tangential C. Axial D. Parietoacanthialds - D Which one of the following is an example of an axial projection? A. Transthoracic B. Mediolateral ankle C. AP chest with 20 degree cephalic D. AP abdomen with 30 degree rotation to left - C Which one of the following positioning terms is no longer considered valid in the US? A. Radiographic view B. Radiographic position C. Radiographic projection D. Semi-axial projection - A What is the direct opposite of each term?
- Proximal
- Cephalad
- Ipsilateral
- Medial
- Superficial
- Internal
- Lordosis
- AP
- Superior
- Dorsoplantar - Distal Caudad Contralateral Lateral Deep External
Kyphosis PA Inferior Plantodorsal True/False If a patient is younger than 18 years of age, any confidential information obtained during the procedure must be shared with the parent or guardian. - False True/False The technologist must provide a preliminary interpretation of any radiographs if requested by the referring physician - False True/False Personal patient information can be shared with another technologist even if he or she has no role in that patient's procedure - False True/False The technologist can explain a radiographic procedure to the patient without permission from the referring physician or radiologist - True Indicate the minimum number of projections required required for the following structures:
- Knee
- Fourth Finger
- Humorous
- Sternum
- Ankle
- Tibia/fibula
- Chest
- Hand
- Hip (proximal femur)
- Forearm - 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 Which of the following radiologic procedures only a single AP projection be taken? A. Post-reduction forearm B. Pelvis
A patient enters the emergency room with a fractured little (fifth) toe. What is the minimum number of projections that should be taken for this patient? A. One B. Three C. Two D. Four - B Which of the following positioning routines should be performed of a wrist study? A. AP, PA and lateral projections B. AP and lateral projections C. PA, oblique, and lateral projections D. Oblique, axial and lateral projections - C Which of the following positioning routines should be performed for a chest study? A. PA, and lateral projection B. PA, oblique, and lateral projections C. AP, PA and lateral projections D. PA, LAO and LAO projections - A The technique for localizing bony and soft tissue of radiographic landmarks to termed: A. Localization B. Tactile Localization C. Physical assessment D. Palpation - D Which one of the following is not one of the four primary image quality factor? A. Density B. Contrast C. Kilovoltage (kV) D. Detail E. Distortion - C The amount of blackness on a processed radiograph is called A. Density B. Milliampere seconds (mAs) C. Contrast D. Penumbra - A Which of the following exposure factors primarily controls radiographic density? A. kV B. mAs C. Focal spot size D. SID - B True/False
For an underexposure radiograph, the mAs must be increased by a factor of four to produce a a visible change in radiographic density - B A radiograph of the knee reveals that it is overexposed and must be repeated. The original technique used 10 mAs. Which one of the following changes will improve the image during the repeat exposure? A. Increase to 15 mAs B. Decrease to 5 mAs C. Increase to 20 mAs D. Decrease to 2 mAs - B Primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast is: A. mAs B. kV C. Focal Spot D SID - B Chest radiography requires long-scale contrast. Which set of exposure factors will be produced? A. 50 kV, 20 mAs B. 65 kV , 15 mAs C. 110 kV, 2 mAs D. 80 kV, 5 mAs - C Which one of the following sets of exposure factors will produce the highest (short scale) radiographic contrast? A. 60 kV, 30 mAs B. 80 kV , 20 mAs C. 96 kV, 5 mAs D. 120 kV, 2 mAs - A True/False Kilovoltage is s secondary controlling factor for a radiographic density. - True True/False A low kilovoltage technique (50 kV) produces a long-scale contrast image. - False A radiograph of the elbow reveals that it is overexposed. The technologist wants to adjust kV rather than mAs for the repeat exposure. This is contrary to common practice. The original analog exposure factors were 70 kV and 5 mAs. Which one of the following kV settings would reduce radiographic density by one half A. 80 kV and 5 mAs B. 66 kV and 5 mAs C. 60 kV and 5 mAs D. 56 kV and 5 mAs - C
A. Off level B. Off center C. Upside down grid D. Off focus - A Which one of the following requires the use of grid? A. PA Hand B. Axial calcaneus (heel) C. AP abdomen D AP elbow - C The misrepresentation of an object's size or shape projected on a radiograph is called A. Magnification B. Blurring C. Unsharpness D. Distortion - D Which one of the following sets of factors minimizes radiographic distortion to the greatest degree? A. 40 inch SID and 8 inch OID B. 44 inch SID and 7 inch OID C. 72 inch SID and 3 inch OID D. 60 inch SID and 4 inch OID - C True/False To best use the anode heel effect, the thinner aspect of the anatomic part should be placed under the cathode aspect of the x-ray tube - False The best method to reduce distortion of the joints of the hand is to keep the fingers _________________________________ to the IR A. Perpendicular B. Parallel C. At a 30 degree angle D. Vertical - B Which one of the following factors affects spatial resolution to the greatest degree? A. Use of a grid B. kV C. Focal spot size D. mAs - C Each digital image is formed by a two dimensional elements termed: A Pixel B Matrix C Voxels D Bytes - A
Highly complex mathematical formulas used in creating the digital image are termed: A. Digital reconstructions B. Bit Processing matrices C. Digital displays D. Algorithms - D True/False Changes in kV have little impact on patient dose with digital imaging - False True/False kV and mAs do not have the same direct effect on image quality with digital imaging as they do with IR screen imaging - True True/False A wide exposure latitude associated with digital imaging systems will reduce repeat exposures - True The intensity of light that represents the individual pixels in the image on the monitor is termed A Latitude B Brightness C Contrast D Resolution - B The primary controlling factor of contrast in the digital image is A. kV B. mAs C. Processing algorithms D. Use of grid - C The greater the bit depth of a digital system the greater the A. Contrast resolution B. Brightness C. Resolution D. Noise - A Which one of the following terms describes the minimum pixel size that can be displayed by a monitor? A. Acquisition pixel size B. Display pixel size C. Monitor latent pixel size D. Reconstructed pixel size - B True/False OID and SID have little impact on spatial resolution of the digital image - False
B. Contrast C. Smoothing D. Brightness - B True/False Post Processing can correct for a low SNR image - False
