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Question 1. Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the host hardware without a underlying operating system? A) Type 2 (Hosted) B) Type 1 (Bare‑Metal) C) Paravirtualization D) Container‑based Answer: B Explanation: Type 1 hypervisors install directly on the physical server, providing higher performance and isolation than hosted (Type 2) hypervisors. Question 2. In VMware terminology, what does the acronym “vCPU” represent? A) Virtual Central Processing Unit B) Verified Core Processing Unit C) Virtualized Control Plane Unit D) Variable Compute Unit Answer: A Explanation: vCPU is the virtual representation of a physical CPU core allocated to a virtual machine. Question 3. Which storage provisioning method allocates space on demand as data is written?
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A) Thick provisioning eager zeroed B) Thick provisioning lazy zeroed C) Thin provisioning D) Fixed allocation Answer: C Explanation: Thin provisioning reserves logical capacity but only consumes physical storage when data is actually written. Question 4. What is the primary benefit of using VM templates? A) To increase CPU utilization on hosts B) To standardize and accelerate VM deployment C) To enable live migration without downtime D) To provide automatic backup of VMs Answer: B Explanation: Templates store a pre‑configured VM image, allowing rapid creation of consistent new VMs. Question 5. Which of the following best describes “vMotion” in VMware environments? A) Cold migration of powered‑off VMs B) Live migration of running VMs with no downtime
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Answer: B Explanation: Resource pools aggregate CPU and memory resources for collective management and allocation among member VMs. Question 8. In a virtual network, what does a “port group” define? A) The physical NICs attached to a host. B) The VLAN ID and security policies for a set of virtual NICs. C) The storage protocol used for VM disks. D) The number of vCPUs a VM can use. Answer: B Explanation: Port groups bind virtual NICs to a specific VLAN and apply associated network policies. Question 9. Which metric indicates the time a VM spends waiting for CPU cycles on a busy host? A) CPU Ready Time B) CPU Utilization C) CPU Steal Time D) CPU Idle Time Answer: A Explanation: CPU Ready Time measures how long a VM is ready to run but is waiting for CPU resources.
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Question 10. What is the purpose of “Fault Tolerance” (FT) in VMware? A) To automatically balance load across hosts. B) To provide a live, mirrored copy of a VM for zero‑downtime protection. C) To snapshot a VM for backup. D) To replicate storage to a SAN. Answer: B Explanation: FT creates a secondary VM that runs in lockstep with the primary, ensuring continuous availability. Question 11. Which storage protocol uses block-level access over Ethernet? A) NFS B) iSCSI C) CIFS D) SMB Answer: B Explanation: iSCSI transports SCSI commands over TCP/IP, providing block‑level storage over Ethernet networks. Question 12. In a vSphere HA cluster, what happens when a host fails? A) All VMs on the host are powered off permanently.
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D) It prevents encryption of network traffic. Answer: B Explanation: Shared virtual switches permit unrestricted traffic between VMs on the same host unless additional security policies are applied. Question 15. Which feature allows a VM to add additional vCPU and memory while it is powered on? A) Hot‑Add B) Live Migration C) Snapshot D) Clone Answer: A Explanation: Hot‑Add enables dynamic scaling of CPU and RAM resources without requiring a VM reboot. Question 16. What does “DRS” stand for, and what is its primary function? A) Disaster Recovery Service – replicates VMs to a remote site. B) Distributed Resource Scheduler – balances workloads across hosts. C) Data Replication System – synchronizes storage arrays. D) Dynamic Routing Switch – manages virtual network traffic. Answer: B
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Explanation: DRS automatically places VMs on the most appropriate host based on resource utilization. Question 17. Which of the following is a best practice for hypervisor hardening? A) Disabling all firewall rules on the management network. B) Running the hypervisor as a virtual machine. C) Limiting management access to dedicated NICs and using strong authentication. D) Allowing root login via SSH without passwords. Answer: C Explanation: Isolating management traffic and enforcing strong authentication reduces attack surface. Question 18. In a virtualized environment, what is a “snapshot”? A) A full backup of a VM’s disk files. B) A point‑in‑time copy of a VM’s memory and disk state. C) A clone of a VM that runs on a different host. D) A template used for VM provisioning. Answer: B Explanation: Snapshots capture the VM’s current state, allowing rollback to that exact moment.
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A. All hosts must have identical CPU models. B. Shared storage must be accessible by all hosts in the cluster. C. Each VM must have a snapshot enabled. D. All VMs must be powered off during HA configuration. Answer: B Explanation: HA needs shared storage to relocate VMs to another host when a failure occurs. Question 22. In a virtual environment, what is “ballooning” used for? A. To increase VM CPU priority. B. To reclaim unused memory from a VM and give it back to the host. C. To compress VM disk files. D. To duplicate a VM for fault tolerance. Answer: B Explanation: The balloon driver forces a VM to release memory, allowing the hypervisor to allocate it elsewhere. Question 23. Which protocol is commonly used for network‑attached storage (NAS) in virtualized environments? A. iSCSI B. NFS
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C. Fibre Channel D. SMB Answer: B Explanation: NFS provides file‑level access over IP networks and is widely used for shared VM datastores. Question 24. What is the main purpose of a “distributed virtual switch” (DVS) in VMware? A. To provide a single logical switch across multiple hosts, simplifying network management. B. To enable VM snapshots across hosts. C. To increase CPU scheduling efficiency. D. To store VM templates centrally. Answer: A Explanation: DVS abstracts physical NICs and provides consistent networking policies across a cluster. Question 25. Which of the following statements about “cold migration” is true? A. The VM remains powered on during migration. B. Migration can only occur between hosts with identical CPU families. C. The VM must be powered off before migration.
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Explanation: Thin provisioning allocates space on demand, making it ideal for environments where storage needs are unpredictable. Question 28. What is the effect of setting a “limit” on a VM’s memory allocation? A. Guarantees the VM will always receive that amount of memory. B. Caps the maximum memory the VM can use, even if more is available. C. Prioritizes the VM over others for memory resources. D. Enables the VM to use host memory as swap space. Answer: B Explanation: A memory limit restricts a VM’s usage to the defined value, regardless of host capacity. Question 29. Which feature allows a VM to be powered on automatically after a host reboot? A. Auto‑Start Manager B. vMotion C. DRS D. HA Admission Control Answer: A Explanation: The Auto‑Start Manager configures VMs to start in a defined order after the ESXi host boots.
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Question 30. In virtualization, what does “paravirtualization” refer to? A. Running VMs without any hypervisor. B. Modifying guest OS to interact directly with the hypervisor for better performance. C. Using containers instead of full VMs. D. Providing hardware acceleration for graphics. Answer: B Explanation: Paravirtualization requires guest OS changes to communicate efficiently with the hypervisor. Question 31. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a virtual machine’s configuration? A. vCPU count B. vRAM size C. Physical NIC MAC address D. Virtual disk (vDisk) file Answer: C Explanation: VMs use virtual NICs with generated MAC addresses; they do not directly use physical NIC MAC addresses.
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A. To balance CPU load across hosts. B. To replicate VM data to another datastore for disaster recovery. C. To provide high‑availability for storage arrays. D. To enable encrypted networking. Answer: B Explanation: vSphere Replication creates point‑in‑time copies of VM disks on a secondary location for DR purposes. Question 35. Which of the following best defines “CPU overcommitment”? A. Assigning more physical CPUs to a host than it actually has. B. Allocating more vCPUs to VMs than the host’s physical CPU cores. C. Reducing the number of vCPUs per VM to improve performance. D. Using CPU throttling to limit VM usage. Answer: B Explanation: Overcommitment occurs when the total vCPU count exceeds the physical CPU resources, relying on scheduling to share CPU time. Question 36. What is the primary function of a “VMkernel” in VMware ESXi? A. To provide a full Linux operating system for VMs. B. To manage hardware resources and run virtual machines directly. C. To store VM configuration files.
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D. To act as a backup server. Answer: B Explanation: The VMkernel is a lightweight hypervisor kernel that abstracts hardware and schedules VM workloads. Question 37. Which of the following is a security benefit of using “VM isolation”? A. It increases CPU performance. B. It prevents a compromised VM from affecting others on the same host. C. It eliminates the need for firewalls. D. It automatically encrypts all VM data. Answer: B Explanation: Isolation ensures that a breach in one VM does not propagate to neighboring VMs on the same physical server. Question 38. What does “vMotion” require to function correctly? A. Identical CPU models on source and destination hosts. B. Shared storage accessible by both hosts. C. VMs must be powered off. D. A dedicated backup network. Answer: B
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Question 41. Which of the following best describes “network I/O control” (NIOC) in vSphere? A. It limits the amount of storage I/O a VM can generate. B. It prioritizes network bandwidth among different traffic types and VMs. C. It encrypts all VM network traffic. D. It assigns static IP addresses to VMs. Answer: B Explanation: NIOC allocates bandwidth shares to ensure critical traffic receives sufficient network resources. Question 42. What is the main advantage of using “VMware vSphere High Availability (HA) Admission Control”? A. It guarantees that enough resources are reserved to restart VMs after a host failure. B. It automatically replicates VMs to a remote site. C. It disables VM snapshots during maintenance. D. It balances CPU load across all hosts. Answer: A Explanation: Admission Control ensures the cluster retains sufficient capacity to restart VMs if a host goes down.
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Question 43. Which of the following is a key difference between “snapshot” and “clone”? A. Snapshots are read‑only; clones are writable. B. Snapshots capture a point‑in‑time state; clones create a full, independent copy of a VM. C. Clones consume no additional storage; snapshots always double storage usage. D. Snapshots can be used for live migration; clones cannot. Answer: B Explanation: A snapshot records the VM’s state at a moment, while a clone produces a separate, fully functional VM. Question 44. Which command-line utility is used on ESXi to view current CPU ready time for a VM? A. esxcli vm process list B. esxtop C. vmkping D. vSphere CLI (vcli) – vmware-cmd Answer: B Explanation: esxtop provides real‑time performance metrics, including CPU ready time for each VM.
