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A set of multiple-choice questions and answers related to the certified addiction counselor (cadc) final exam. It covers various topics relevant to addiction treatment, including discharge planning, client resistance, withdrawal symptoms, treatment readiness, case management, motivational interviewing, transference, treatment services review, maslow's hierarchy of needs, samhsa's nrepp, cultural considerations in addiction treatment, ethical principles, group therapy, case management models, assessment bias, co-occurring disorders, and medication-assisted treatment. The document can be a valuable resource for students preparing for the cadc exam.
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Sooner or later, all treatment programs end, and a discharge summary and continuing care plan will then be required. What is the key difference between a discharge summary and a containing care plan? A. A discharge plan provides directions for further treatment, while the continuing care plan addresses the client's clinical presentation at discharge. B. A discharge plan provides an overview of treatment and outcomes, while the continuing care plan addresses aftercare options based on the client's response to treatment. C. A discharge plan provides a roster of prior professionals involved, while the continuing care plan proposes further professionals to engage in the treatment process. D. A discharge plan provides a theoretical orientation to a client's presentation, while a continuing care plan offers a model for further intervention. - CORRECT ANSWER- B. A discharge plan provides an overview of treatment and outcomes, while the continuing care plan
addresses aftercare options based on the client's response to treatment. (You answered this correctly) What does client resistance to treatment MOST likely indicate? A. The client is being pressured to change too quickly. B. The client simply doesn't care to overcome the problem. C. The client has been coerced into treatment. D. The client is embarrassed about past relapses. - CORRECT ANSWER- A. The client is being pressured to change too quickly. (You answered this correctly) What are withdrawal symptoms, characterized by severe-flu symptoms (nausea, vomiting, runny nose, watery eyes, chills, abdominal cramps, anorexia, weakness, tremors, sweating, etc.), MOST characteristic? A. Opioid withdrawal B. Hallucinogenic withdrawal C. Barbiturate withdrawal D. Benzodiazepine withdrawal - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Opioid withdrawal (You answered this correctly) What is a client's readiness for treatment strongly associated? A. Duration of time abusing a drug of choice B. The perception of needing help in change C. Number of deteriorative health changes encountered
B. Feeling from the counselor that the client accepts to grow and improve C. Feelings from a past relationship that are projected onto the counselor D. Feeling from current relationships that are added to the counseling experience - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Feelings from a past relationship that are projected onto the counselor (you answered this correctly) That does the TSR assessment instrument measure? A. Therapeutic intensity and problem severity B. Solution-oriented therapeutic resistance C. Nature and intensity of treatment services D. Topic specific remedial outcomes - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Nature and intensity of treatment services (you answered this correctly). TSR stands for "Treatment Services Review". How is Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs BEST described? A. A fundamental ranking of essential needs B. The way a client selects a drug of choice C. A scale for determining treatment readiness D. A model of the processes involved in change - CORRECT ANSWER- A. A fundamental ranking of essential needs (you answered this correctly)
The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) maintains a national registry known as NREPP. What does this acronym refer to? A. National Registry of Examinations for Psychological Practices B. National Registry of Excellence in Program Practicum C. National Registry of Evidence-Based Programs and Practices D. National Registry of Examiners and Program Procedures - CORRECT ANSWER- C. National Registry of Evidence-Based Programs and Practices (you answered this correctly) African Americans have a significant presence in the United States. What is the percentage of the population that identifies themselves as black? A. 8 Percent B. 11 Percent C. 13 Percent D. 16 Percent - CORRECT ANSWER- C. 13 Percent Significant substance abuse can arrest personal progress and growth in many ways. How will emotional and other normal developmental stages MOST likely be affected? A. They will progress more slowly due to significant substance abuse. B. They will progress more rapidly due to significant substance abuse. C. They will be largely skipped due to significant substance abuse.
A potential client enters a program for treatment and a counselor recognizes him from a Little League team in which their sons are both still active. What is the BEST response by the counselor? A. Pretend to have not seen the acquaintance, and never speak of it to them. B. Speak with the client privately, and offer assurances of confidentiality. C. Seek to be assigned as the client's counselor to ease tension and show support. D. Refer the client to another treatment program. - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Speak with the client privately, and offer assurances of confidentiality. What do the acronyms CART and CHART both refer to? A. Treatment interventions B. Diagnostic assessments C. Progress note formats D. Assessments for symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Progress note formats A program or agency at times may require outside services to continue functioning properly. When an outside official or agency provides services solely to maintain the function and viability of a treating agency or program, confidentiality is maintained when service providers sign a A. Contractual Agreement for Limited Services (CALS)
B. Qualified Service Organization Agreement (QSOA) C. Confidentiality and Privacy Service Agreement (CPSA) D. Consent and Disclosure Limitations Contract (CDLC) - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Qualified Service Organization Agreement (QSOA) What does the BIRP progress note acronym stand for? A. Behavior, Interview, Reaction, Purpose B. Behavior, Integrate, Review, Propose C. Behavior, Intervention, Response, Plan D. Behavior, Intervene, Revise, Program - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Behavior, Intervention, Response, Plan Fundamental ethical principles govern the addiction treatment process, especially in situations of medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid addiction. What does the principles of nonmaleficence refer to? A. Preserving client autonomy B. Working to a client's benefit C. Doing no harm to a client D. Faithfully honoring commitments - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Doing no harm to a client (you answered this one correctly) Optimal group size in a typical treatment group involves how many members? A. Eight to fifteen members
A. No co-occurring disorder B. Mild to low co-occurring severity C. Moderate co-occurring severity D. High co-occurring severity - CORRECT ANSWER- D. High co- occurring severity (you answered this one correctly) Among the following mental health disorders, which one is the MOST influenced by culture? A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder C. Panic disorder D. Depression - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Depression (you answered this one correctly) What is the purpose of open-ended heterogenous groups? A. To allow flexibility in new member assignments B. To keep difficult clients away from each other C. To put clients together with similar issues D. To meet the needs of clients with special problems - CORRECT ANSWER- A. to allow-flexibility in new member assignments (you answered this one correctly) The term double trouble, in reference to mutual-help groups, refers to what?
A. Groups for clients with both psychiatric and substance abuse issues B. Groups for clients with both legal and substance abuse issues C. Groups for clients with polysubstance abuse concerns D. Groups for clients with a personality disorder and substance abuse - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Groups for clients with both psychiatric and substance abuse issues (you answered this one correctly) Why are medication management groups created primarily? A. To administer medications to noncompliant clients B. To allow clients to participate in medication research trials C. To transition clients from one medication to another D. To offer education and address compliance concerns - CORRECT ANSWER- D. To offer education and address compliance concerns What is the GREATEST culture barrier to receiving mental health treatment? A. The stigma of mental illness B. Mistrust of mental health providers C. Readily available alternatives (healers, clergy, etc.) D. A lack of family support - CORRECT ANSWER- A. The stigma of mental illness
D. Eight stages - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Four stages (you answered this correctly) Treatment plans should refer to the type of program service modality being offered. Which of the following is NOT a common modality? A. Residential B. Outpatient C. Scholastic D. Perinatal - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Scholastic (you answered this one correctly) What are depressant drugs (e.g., alcohol, opiates, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines) typically used to cope with? A. Excitement B. Fatigue C. Stress D. Boredom - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Stress (You answered this one correctly) How many treatment weeks are involved in the current Matrix Model program? A. Twelve weeks B. Sixteen weeks C. Twenty-four weeks
D. Thirty-two weeks - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Sixteen weeks Which of the following levels was NOT proposed by Abraham Maslow in his Hierarchy of Needs? A. Basic needs B. Safety needs C. Recreational needs D. Esteem needs - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Recreational needs (you answered this one correctly) What theory is community reinforcement (CR) and contingency management (CR) based upon? A. Social learning theory B. Operant conditioning theory C. Family systems theory D. Biological-genetic theory - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Operant conditioning theory What kind of drug does the term nootropic refer to? A. Memory enhancing B. Mood stabilizing C. Hallucinogenic ct. Psychedelic - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Memory enhancing (you answered this correctly)
C. Ensure total emersion in the client's issues to properly relate and understand. D. Ensure every detail of past pain and trauma is relieved and released. - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Avoid becoming overly drawn into the client's history and issues. (You answered this one correctly) What is the AASE scale used to determine or evaluate? A. Alcohol abstinence commitment in high-relapse situations B. Activities and actions used to ensure substance abstinence C. Assessment of associations for substance experimentation D. Alcohol associations and effects in varying intoxicated states - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Alcohol abstinence commitment in high- relapse situations (you answered this correctly) Which of the following is NOT a key information outcome of screening and assessment? A. Measures of client treatment compliance B. Essential consents and authorizations C. Substance abuse disorder severity D. Client strengths and available supports - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Measures of client treatment compliance Which of the following statements is true regarding cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)? A. It is about as effective as minimal or no therapy at all.
B. It is inferior to motivational enhancement therapy (MET). C. It is superior to contingency management approaches D. It is less effective than twelve-step facilitation for reducing alcohol use. - CORRECT ANSWER- C. It is superior to contingency management approaches. Which of the following is not an established twelve-step program? A. Narcotics Anonymous B. Cocaine Anonymous C. Hallucinogens Anonymous D. Alcoholics Anonymous - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Hallucinogens Anonymous (You answered this correctly) Which of the following MOST properly defines screening and assessment? A. Screening evaluates a problem; assessment diagnoses it. B. Screening identifies a problem; assessment treats it. C. Screening looks for a problem; assessment defines it. D. Screening reveals a problem; assessment resolves it. - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Screening looks for a problem; assessment defines it (you answered this correctly) During assessment, what does the term collateral contacts refer to?
D. Multidimensional family therapy - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Network therapy What is the COPES scale used for? A. Helping clients learn how to cope with transitions B. Exploring client readiness for treatment C. Assessing client support systems and resources D. Assessing community-based treatment programs - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Assessing community-based treatment programs How is client motivation for treatment BEST maintained? A. Declarations of serious consequences B. Fear of failure and the results that follow C. Reminders of what brought them into treatment D. Devil's advocate statements that they'll never make it - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Reminders of what brought them to treatment (You answered this correctly) Although homeless individuals are more likely to receive detoxification services than people not homeless, what percentage will receive full treatment for their alcohol or substance abuse problems? A. 15 percent B. 25 percent C. 35 percent
D. 45 percent - CORRECT ANSWER- B. 25 percent What is the Symptom Checklist- 90 - R (SCL- 90 - R) used for? A. An in-depth assessment of physiological health B. An in-depth assessment of psychological health C. Tracking client progress or treatment outcomes D. Both B and C. - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Both B and C (You answered this one correctly) Which of the following is NOT measured by the DIS schedule? A. Substance use disorders B. Alcohol use disorders C. Psychiatric disorders D. Physical health disorders - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Physical health disorders (you answered this one correctly) Which is the MOST correct statement regarding individuals voluntarily entering treatment for substance? A. They are committed to change. B. They are fully ready to change. C. They are at varying stages of change readiness.