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RCIS- Pharmacology Exam Questions and Answers 2024
In the cath lab, what medications when combined with routine nitroglycerine can lead to severe hypotension? a. NPH insulin b. ARBs (losartan, candesartan) c. NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen) d. Sildenafil (viagra) and vardenafil (levitra) d. Sildenafil (viagra) and vardenafil (levitra) For patients in atrial fibrillation, the therapeutic range of Coumadin is an INR of: a. 0.8-1. b. 2.0-3. c. 12 - 15 sec d. 200 - 300 sec b. 2.0-3. At the beginning of a complex PTCA/stent case on a 200lb man, 10,000 units of unfractionated heparin were administered. One hour into the procedure the ACT is measured at 285 sec. The physician will probably order: a. no more anticoagulant b. 5000 units Heparin IV c. 10,000 units Heparin IV d. 10mg Protamine IV a. no more anticoagulant Your 55kg patient comes to the cath lab premedicated with 300mg Clopidogrel (Plavix) for a PCI. The physician orders 2000 units of unfractionated Heparin IV. To check for the proper level of anticoagulation draw the first ACT: a. just before the heparin is given b. 5 min after the heparin is given c. 1 hour after the heparin is given d. at end of case, prior to pulling the sheath b. 5 min after the heparin is given What platelet receptor site does abciximab (ReoPro) block? a. plasminogen (t-PA) b. alpha 2 - antiplasmin c. glycoprotein IIb/IIIa d. thromboxane TXA c. glycoprotein IIb/IIIa All the following are GPIIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors EXCEPT: a. abciximab (ReoPro)
b. clopidogrel (plavix) c. eptifibatide (integrilin) d. tirofiban (aggrastat) b. clopidogrel (plavix) Which of the following is NOT an anti-platelet drug? a. ticlopidine (ticlid) b. clopidogrel (plavix) c. warfarin (coumadin) d. acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) c. warfarin (coumadin) Aspirin works in blood because it interferes with: a. ADP receptors b. angiotensine II receptors c. binding of thrombin to fibrinogen d. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin e. prostaglandin synthesis of thromboxane A e. prostaglandin synthesis of thromboxane A IV Heparin administration to patients with myocardial infarction: a. lyes clots b. dissolves clots c. prevents thrombin formation d. prevents platelet aggregation c. prevents thrombin formation Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) is different from unfractionated Heparin in that: (select 2 answers) a. LMWH is administered subcutaneously b. LMWH must be monitored with PPT not ACT c. LMWH has an increased risk of thrombocytopenia d. LMWH cannot be completely reversed with Protamine a. LMWH is administered subcutaneously d. LMWH cannot be completely reversed with Protamine In STEMI the time to treatment is critical. If definitive treatment can be given within 3 hours of symptoms, the treatment with the lowest mortality is? a. emergency PCI b. emergency CABG surgery c. thrombolysis in hospital d. thrombolysis out hospital (at EMS scene) a. emergency PCI Which of following drugs is benzodiazepine? a. midazolam (versed)
b. diazepam (valium) What is the concentration of 2 grams of lidocaine in 500 cc of D5W? a. 4 mg/ml b. 4 mcg/ml c. 20 mg/ml d. 0.1 gm/ml a. 4 mg/ml Calculate the concentration of 1 gram of epinephrine in 250 ml. a. 4 mg/ml b. 4 mcg/ml c. 20 mg/ml d. 0.1 gm/ml a. 4 mg/ml To mix a dopamine drip to a strength of 1600 mcg/ml in a 250 ml saline bag add: a. 0.4 mg to the 250 ml bag b. 4 mg to the 250 ml bag c. 400 mg to the 250 ml bag d. 4 grams to the 250 ml bag c. 400 mg to the 250 ml bag Don't administer to a diabetic patient taking NPH insulin: a. protamine b. dobutamine c. beta blocker d. amiodarone a. protamine Don't administer IV to an asthmatic: a. nitroglycerine b. calcium blockers c. beta blockers d. high levels of O c. beta blockers Osmolality refers to the ability of contrast to: a. dissociate into ionic compnents b. excrete water via the kidneys c. eliminate Iodine via the kidneys d. draw water into the vascular space d. draw water into the vascular space Your heart failure patient in the cath lab becomes extremely short of breath. The physician orders IV lasix (furosemide). You then expect for the physician to order a/an:
a. balloon pump b. impella device c. fogarty catheter d. foley catheter d. foley catheter Which electrolyte imbalance exacerbates digitalis (digoxin) toxicity? a. hypokalemia b. hyperkalemia c. hypocalcemia d. metabolic alkalosis a. hypokalemia Which medication reduces retained water in CHF patients? a. digitalis (digoxin) b. furosemide (lasix) c. hydralazine (apresoline) d. hydrocortisone (cortisol) b. furosemide (lasix) Which drug is a calcium channel blocker? a. inderal (propranolol) b. calcitriol (calcijex) c. nifedipine (procardia) d. lopressor (metoprolol) c. nifedipine (procardia) Beta I receptors are stimulated by all the following drugs EXCEPT: a. isuprel b. dopamine c. epinephrine d. metoprolol d. metoprolol During an angiography procedure your patient develops severe dyspnea, wheezing, syncope and hypotension. Administer: a. N-acetyl cysteine, ephedrine, dopamine b. benadryl, prednisone, decadron, theophylline c. epinephrine, phenylephrine, neo-synephrine, and dopamine d. epinephrine, diphenhydramine (benadryl), hydrocortisone, and volume infusion d. epinephrine, diphenhydramine (benadryl), hydrocortisone, and volume infusion Serum markers for cardiac damage in acute MI include all the following EXCEPT: a. troponin (cTnI) b. lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
d. SVT with hypotension e. NSTEMI with hypotension c. coronary artery spasm Before injecting a cocktail of anticoagulants and antispasmotics into the radial artery it may be mixed with 10 ml of the patients blood and injected. Why is it mixed with blood prior to injection? a. this allows slower administration (over 1 - 2 min) b. to prevent clotting in the hand and access site c. reduce the burning sensation in the hand d. reduce incidence of hematoma at the site c. reduce the burning sensation in the hand Which of the following is NOT an appropriate pre-med for a catheterization patient with a history of contrast allergies? a. benadryl b. amrinone c. cimetidine d. prednisone b. amrinone If a patient comes to cardiac catheterization with a stated allergy to topical iodine, it is most important to: a. not use iodinated contrast agents b. use only low osmolar contrast agents c. use 10% clorox as the surgical scrub d. use hibiclens (chlorhexidine) as the surgical scrub d. use hibiclens (chlorhexidine) as the surgical scrub How is radiographic contrast eliminated from the body? a. is is broken down by the liver and metabolized b it is broken down by the thyroid and metabolized c. filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine d. filtered out and excreted through the small intestine c. filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine At cath a patient is given IV ergonovine (methylergonovine). He then develops a positive response with acute chest pain. What procedures should you anticipate next? a. emergency angioplasty or bypass surgery b. echocardiogram, ventriculogram, and IC Adenosine c. 12 lead ECG, coronary angiograms, and IC Nitroglycerin d. CPR, temporary pacemaker placement and/or cardioversion c. 12 lead ECG, coronary angiograms, and IC Nitroglycerin Ergonovine (methylergonovine or methergine) may be administered during a cardiac cath to:
a. provoke coronary spasm b. treat ventricular arrhythmias c. provoke obstructive cardiomyopathy d. prevent allergic reactions to contrast a. provoke coronary spasm At cath what signs indicate a positive ergonovine (methylergonovine) test? a. ST elevation b. large Q waves c. coronary artery pressure damping d. increased coronary flow (hyperemia) a. ST elevation The dosage of methylergonovine to provoke Prinzmetal's angina is: a. 0.05 mg, 0.1 mg, 0.25 mg IV at 5 min intervals b. 0.2 mg, 0.5 mg, 1.0 mg IV at 10 min intervals c. 0.05 mg, 0.1 mg, 0.25 mg IC at 2 min intervals d. 0.2 mg, 0.5 mg, 1.0 mg IC at 5 min intervals a. 0.05 mg, 0.1 mg, 0.25 mg IV at 5 min intervals In the methylergonovine test to provoke coronary spasm, how long should you wait after the first dose, to give the second dose? a. 1 min b. 3 min c. 10 min d. 15 min b. 3 min IV extravasation of may result in local tissue necrosis. a. nitroglycerin b. furosemide (lasix) c. dopamine (intropin) d. amiodarone (pacerone, cordarone) c. dopamine (intropin) Your elderly patient comes to the ER with a narrow complex tachycardia with occasional nonconductor beats (2nd degree block). Simple vagal maneuvers fail to convert the rhythm. He also complains of nausea, headache and seeing weird lights and colors. HR is 124. BP is 120/60. He is taking digitalis and diuretics for mild heart failure. All the following are appropriate EXCEPT: a. administer adenosine b. give anesthesia and cardiovert c. administer IV phenytoin and lidocaine d. draw blood to measure digitalis and electrolyte levels b. give anesthesia and cardiovert
To treat symptomatic unstable adult SVT infuse: a. adenosine 6mg push b. adenosine 25 mg push c. amiodarone 150mg over 10 min d. amiodarone 300mg push a. adenosine 6mg push What is the active half life of adenosine? a. 10 - 30 secs b. 10 - 20 mins c. 6 - 12 hours d. 1 - 2 weeks a. 10 - 30 secs What is the elimination half life of amiodarone? a. 20 - 40 mins b. 12 - 24 hours c. 2 - 3 days d. 4 - 8 weeks d. 4 - 8 weeks Patient comes to the ER in polymorphic V-tach, who is unresponsive with BP of 80/ mmHg. What should you do first? a. cardiovert 150 j biphasic b. defibrillate 200 j biphasic c. give epinephrine 1 mg IV d. give vasopressin 40 units IV b. defibrillate 200 j biphasic A synthetic catecholamine drug that is a pure beta stimulant and increase myocardial O2 consumption is: a. atropine b. dopamine c. metaraminol (aramine) d. isoproterenol (isuprel) d. isoproterenol (isuprel) When IV Isoproterenol (Isuprel) is administered to a coronary patient, what complication should be watched for? a. VF, VT b. AV blocks c. hypotension d. bradycardia, asystole a. VF, VT
Rapid bolus injection of Procainamide may cause: a. bradycardia b. tachycardia c. hypotension d. hypertension c. hypotension All of the following are antiplatelets EXCEPT for? a. Aspirin b. Plavix (clopidogrel) c. Heparin d. Integrelin (Eptifibatide) e. Brillinta (ticagrelor) f. Effient (prasugrel) g. ReoPro (abciximab) c. Heparin All of the following are antithrombin's EXCEPT for? a. Aspirin b. Coumadin (warfarin) c. Heparin d. Angiomax (bivalirudin) e. Lovenox (enoxaparin sodium) a. Aspirin Which of the following are ARBs? (choose 2) a. Lisinopril b. Losartan (cozaar) c. Captopril d. Valsartan (diovan) e. Brinlinta (ticagrelor) b. Losartan (cozaar) d. Valsartan (diovan) Which of the following are ACEs? (choose 2) a. Lisinopril b. Losartan (cozaar) c. Captopril d. Valsartan (diovan) e. Brinlinta (ticagrelor) a. Lisinopril c. Captopril What is the generic name for Brinlinta? a. plavix
What is the brand name for Prasugrel? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. verapamil b. effient What is the brand name for Rivaroxaban? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. verapamil a. xarelto What is the brand name for Tirofiban? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. verapamil c. aggrastat What is the brand name for Verapamil? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. isoptin d. isoptin What is the generic name for Cardizem? a. amlodipine b. norvasc c. diltiazem d. nifedipine c. diltiazem What is the brand name for Amlodipine? a. valsartan b. norvasc c. diltiazem d. nifedipine b. norvasc What is the brand name for Nifedipine? a. amlodipine b. norvasc
c. diltiazem d. procardia d. procardia What is the brand name for Valsartan? a. losartan b. cozaar c. diovan d. metoprolol c. diovan What is the brand name for Losartan? a. atenolol b. cozaar c. diovan d. metoprolol b. cozaar What is the brand name for Metoprolol? a. atenolol b. cozaar c. diovan d. lopressor d. lopressor What is the brand name for Atenolol? a. tenormin b. cozaar c. diovan d. metoprolol a. tenormin What is the generic name for Inderal? a. valium b. demerol c. propranolol d. fentanyl c. propranolol What is the generic name for Valium? a. diazepam b. demerol c. propranolol d. fentanyl a. diazepam
c. pepcid d. midazolam d. midazolam What is the drug used to reverse Versed? a. pepcid b. benadryl c. romazicon d. fentanyl c. romazicon What is the drug used to reverse Fentanyl? a. pepcid b. benadryl c. romazicon d. naloxone d. naloxone What best describes the antibiotic Ancef? (choose 2) a. Broad spectrum antibiotic b. antibiotics work by preventing bacteria from building a cell wall c. Narrow spectrum antibiotic d. prevents bacterial from building a cell wall c. Narrow spectrum antibiotic d. prevents bacterial from building a cell wall What best describes the antibiotic Vancomycin? (choose 2) a. Narrow spectrum antibiotic b. antibiotics work by preventing bacteria from building a cell wall c. Broad spectrum antibiotic d. prevents bacterial from building a cell wall b. antibiotics work by preventing bacteria from building a cell wall c. Broad spectrum antibiotic
