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Anatomy & Physiology II Final Exam
Cardiovascular and which other system maintains normal body temperature? - integumentary system Which globulins transport lipids and fat soluble vitamins? A) plasmin B) alpha and beta globulins C) gamma globulins D) fibrinogen - B When Mr. Walker recovered, he did some blood typing of his friends and wasn't sure what blood type it was if neither A, B, or Rh clotted on a plate. Can you help him out here? A) A+ B) O- C) AB+ D) O+ - B Our kidneys are one of the main regulators of forming new red blood cells, also known as erythropoiesis. Which of the following will trigger the kidneys to increase RBC production? A) the tissues need less oxygen B) an increased number of RBCs C) moving to a lower altitude after living on Mt. Everest D) an increase in exercise and activity levels - D The mediastinum is really the: A) the region of the thoracic cavity that contains the heart B) sac surrounding the heart to give it freedom of movement C) part of the fibrous skeleton anchoring the valves D) space between the fibrous pericardium and the serous pericardium - A One of the features that keeps the heart muscle cells from having a sustained contraction is the: A) constant influx of Na B) a brief influx of Ca++ during repolarization known as the plateau phase C) their relatively short refractory period allows for more contractions D) the SA node fires at a rate that will prevent the cramping type of contractions - B If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells ______________.
A) contractions would last as long as the refractory period B) tetanic contractions (cramping) might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action C) it would be less than 1-2 ms D) it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation - B Which vessel of the heart receives blood during right ventricular contraction? A) pulmonary artery B) venae cavae C) aorta D) pulmonary veins - A Which of the following substances would be lacking if Mr. Walker was having problems with his blood osmolarity and keeping water in his blood vessels? A) clotting proteins such as fibrinogen B) bile C) globulin proteins D) albumins - D The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates: A) ventricular depolarization B) atrial depolarization C) ventricular repolarization D) atrial repolarization - B Damage to the ________ is referred to as a conduction block A) sinoatrial node B) atrioventricular bundle C) atrioventricular valves D) atrioventricular node - D Mr. Walker was in a car accident and was bleeding badly. He turned out to have B+ blood. Which of the following is true? A) he will be producing Rh antibodies B) he is lucky since he can receive any blood type C) he can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen D) his blood contains the B antigen and A antibodies - D Which of the following is NOT normal for our blood plasma? A) a pH of 7. B) nutrients such as lipids, glucose, and amino acids
D) blood flows passively through the ventricles into the atria - A During the platelet release reaction and the platelets are sticking, which of the following things are released to cause more platelets to stick and form the plug? A) histamine B) serotonin C) ADP D) more than one of these - C Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the valves of the heart? A) semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart B) the tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle C) the mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle D) the valves allow pumps to use more force since they prevent backflow - D If Mr. Walker had normal hemoglobin you would be able to tell him that it was made up of: A) hemoglobin is always only protein B) 1 heme group surrounded by 4 globin proteins C) 1 globin protein and 4 heme groups D) 4 heme groups and 4 globin proteins - D Mr. Walker ate some dirt and then developed intestinal parasites. Which of the following cells would help fight the invaders? A) platelets (thrombocytes) B) monocytes C) eosinophils D) basophils - C The platelet release reaction involves all of the following except: A) release of thromboxane A B) release of serotonin C) release of ADP D) all of these are involved - D When watching House and seeing the EKG of one of his ill patients (but with a healthy heart), you are all noticing which of the following? A) that the P wave is larger than the QRS B) that the P wave will always follow the QRS directly C) that the P wave is present only in patients who have had a heart attack D) that the QRS is indicating ventricular depolarization -
D
Platelets are useful because they: A) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break B) are the precursors of leukocytes C) have a life span of about 120 days D) have multiple nuclei - A During blood testing there are a variety of normal and abnormal proteins. Which of the following is abnormal? A) fibrinogen B) thromboplastin C) gamma globulins D) albumin - B In lab you cut a heart in half and noticed that the left side had much thicker walls than the right side. Why is this? A) the bicuspid valve is small so it takes more pressure to push blood out B) the left side of the heart has to pump more blood C) the right side needs less pressure to move blood so there is less muscle D) most people sleep on their right side so it helps push blood out - C If a Rh- negative mother would give birth to an Rh+ child what might be the effects on her body? A) she will start producing Rh antibodies B) she will start producing Rh antigens C) it will have no effect on her body D) she will become Rh positive following exposure - A Which of the following is a precursor of a platelet? A) myeloblast B) plateletoblast C) megakaryoblast D) all of these are correct - C Which of the following cell types is important in the pathway of monocyte production? A) myeloblast B) lymphoblast C) hemocytoblast D) more than one of these is correct - D
fibrinogen protein that plays a role in dissolving a blood clot - plasmin these are cell fragments that help form a plug sealing a break - platelets these proteins increase plasma osmotic pressure - albumin contains cells joined by gap junctions in the heart - myocardium the outermost serous membrane covering the heart itself - epicardium these cells line the heart and are continuous with the endothelium - endocardium the pericardial sac will be lined by: - parietal pericardium
- purkinje fibers
- SA node
- AV node
- bundle branches
- AV bundle Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney are important for doing which of the following? A) reducing blood pressure to the kidneys B) releasing renin if blood pressure is low C) retention of water only D) none of the above - B Epinephrine will have which of the following effects on the sinoatrial node? A) it has no effect on the sinoatrial node B) it will change the threshold so that it is more positive C) it will decrease the amount of time taken to reach threshold D) it will cause the cells to become more negative and increase the time it takes to reach threshold -
C
When you listen to your heart with a stethoscope and looking at the sheet music, the second sound is occuring during: A) atrial systole B) isovolumetric relaxation C) isovolumetric contraction D) ejection phase - B When Mr. Walker is at rest, where might he be able to find about 70% of his blood? A) aorta artery B) capillaries C) interstitial fluid D) veins - D With regard to the regulation of blood pressure in everyday life, which of the following is accurate? A) the renin-angiotensin system will result in vasoconstriction and an increase in blood volume B) antidiuretic hormone release will result in vasoconstriction and an increase in blood volume C) the baroreceptor reflex will result in vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate D) these are all very good answers - D Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure? A) peripheral resistance B) gender C) cardiac output D) blood volume - B Mr. Walker was given epinephrine to increase his heart rate. It accomplished this by: A) increasing sodium channel number causing threshold to be reached more quickly B) decreasing the number of sodium channels open C) lowering the EDV of the heart D) none of the above - A Mr. Walker was prescribed atropine. After consulting his index Medicus, he found out that atropine is a chemical that blocks acetylcholine receptors in the heart. So he figures atropine will: A) cause an increase in heart rate B) have positive inotropic effects C) have no effect on heart rate D) cause a decrease in heart rate - A
In lab you put the blood pressure cuff on the arm for a few minutes and then released the pressure. What did the arm do after releasing pressure and why? A) there was extreme vasoconstriction so the arm was pale white B) the arm turned red due to reactive hyperemia C) myogenic control stabilized the arm via vasoconstriction D) the arm fell off due to rapid tissue death - B When you hear your 2 major heart sounds you really are hearing the: A) friction of blood against the chamber walls B) excitation of the SA node C) contraction of ventricular muscle D) closure of the heart valves - D During the period of ventricular filling: A) blood flows passively through the atria and the open AV valves B) the atria remain in diastole C) pressure in the heart is at its peak D) all of the above are correct - A Capillary blood flow can be controlled by: A) veins increasing their pressure B) osmotic pressure forcing fluid out of the capillaries C) arterioles constricting decrease the flow in capillaries D) precapillary sphincters can open to reduce blood flow - C Select the correct statement about autoregulation of blood flow. A) precapillary sphincters relax to allow blood into needy areas B) long-term autoregulation exists in the form of decreased numbers of blood vessels forming when conditions of hypoxia predominate C) in most tissues the strongest stimulus for vasoconstriction is decreased oxygen levels D) a decreased pressure will cause vasoconstriction to an organ - A The mitral valve is open and the aortic valve is closed: A) during isovolumetic relaxation B) during ventricular systole C) during the filling stage D) during the ejection phase - C In response to the information from osmoreceptors ADH will be released and ADH will:
A) promote a decrease in blood pressure B) promote an increase in blood volume C) result in a larger output of urine D) decrease sodium reabsorption - B The vessels that help bypass a closed capillary bed are called: A) muscular arteries B) venules C) arterioles D) arteriovenous anastomoses - D Fenestrated capillaries: A) are common in endocrine organs and in areas where capillary absorption is an important function B) are more permeable than continuous capillaries C) are found in the kidneys to allow wastes to leave the blood D) all of the above are correct - D Blood flow to individual organs may be regulated by localized metabolic conditons. Which of the following may result in vasodilation? A) increased oxygen levels B) increased carbon dioxide levels C) a rise in the pH D) none of the above will cause vasodilation - C The lymphatic vessels and the veins have a lot in common. Which of the following is correct for how these vessels move fluids? A) they both rely on the vessels themselves contracting B) they use the higher pressure in the thoracic cavity to push fluid along C) the pumping action of the heart will help them both D) the presence of one way valves helps move fluid the right direction - D Heart rate can be affected by which of the following? A) emotions B) postural changes C) activity D) all of the above affect arterial pulse rate - D Which of the following statements is true regarding the stage known as isovolumetric contraction? A) occurs immediately after the semilunar valves close
A) cause vasoconstriction if the pressure is too low to an organ B) cause vasodilation if there is a buildup of certain chemicals C) respond to the stretch of the vessels leading to an organ D) always vasodilate if there is lack of oxygen - C Circulatory shock comes in different forms including: A) vascular shock, a result of systemic vasodilation B) emotional, when librarians are amazed by the numbers of books out C) hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume D) cardiogenic, which results from a failure of gap junctions within the heart - A Factors that aid venous return include all except: A) postural changes B) activity of skeletal muscles C) venous valves D) urinary output - D During ventricular diastole which of the following is correct? A) ventricular pressure will reach its peak B) the ventricles are filling C) the ventricles are emptying D) the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are always closed - B The T wave will begin which phase of the cardiac cycle? A) isovolumetric contraction B) ventricular filling C) ventricular ejection D) cardiogenic shock - B Collection and return of blood to the heart after gas and nutrient exchange is accomplished by the: A) arterioles B) arteries C) capillaries D) veins - D If you were to try to measure Mr. Walker's EDV, which stage of the cardiac cycle would you want to look at? A) filling stage B) isovolumetric relaxation stage
C) isovolumetric contraction stage D) ejection phase - C Mr. Walker had a sudden scare as a lion ran into his living room. Which of the following would be included in his response? A) an increase in the heart rate due to effects at the SA node B) lowered contractility of the heart C) negative inotropic effects D) none of the above - A Select the correct statement about cardiac output. A) an increased blood volume increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction B) if a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased C) decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume D) stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases - A Factors that will increase the stroke volume of the heart would include: A) a lowering of the ESV B) an increased preload C) a higher EDV D) more than one of the above - D Mr. Walker was having problems with his TPR. He wondered what the heck that meant and found only one of the following to be correct. Which one is it? A) he thinks his TPR increases as blood viscosity decreases B) he thinks his TPR increases as blood vessel diameter decreases C) he thinks that his TPR isn't involved with his high blood pressure D) he thinks gaining weight will decrease his TPR - B Closure of the bicuspid valve will result when: A) blood begins to move from the atria to ventricles B) the ventricles relax due to the T wave C) the ventricles contract following the QRS complex D) when the atria contract due to the P wave - C Endothelial cells are found in the tunic known as the: A) tunica interna (intima) B) tunica externa
D) bicarbonate buffer systems - B Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ____________. A) filtration B) osmosis C) active transport D) diffusion - D The redness and heat of an inflamed area is due to a local hyperemia caused by ____________. A) vasodilation B) production of complement and interferon C) phagocyte mobilization D) vasoconstriction - A The cells that look at MHC Class I would be the: A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) plasma cells D) regulatory T cells - A Which of the following is NOT an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2? A) external respiration B) internal respiration C) pulmonary ventilation D) blood pH adjustment - D Interferons _________________. A) interfere with the viral replication within cells B) act by increasing the rate of cell division C) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus D) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold - A The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ____________. A) chemotaxis B) phagocytosis C) diapedesis D) margination -
A
Which respiratory associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon? A) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract B) diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax C) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax D) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax - A The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is _______________. A) increased O2 levels B) pH (alkalosis) C) loss of oxygen in tissues D) lower pH in cerebrospinal fluid - D Which of the following is true about antibodies? A) incapable of being transferred from one person to another B) three binding sites per antibody monomer C) carbohydrate structure D) each antibody has 2 antigen binding sites - D Which of the following is NOT a method by which antibodies work (not part of the PLAN)? A) activating cytokines B) agglutinating and precipitating antigen C) neutralizing antigen D) lysis with complement proteins - A The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ____________. A) charles' law B) henry's law C) dalton's law D) boyle's law - C The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to _____________. A) replace mucus in the alveoli B) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion C) secrete surfactant D) trap dust and other debris - C
A) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid B) warming the air before it enters C) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations D) humidifying the air before it enters - A Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? A) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus B) exposure to an antigen C) booster shot of vaccine D) infusion of weakened viruses - A Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell? A) antigenic B) helper C) cytotoxic D) regulatory - A Regulatory T cells _______________. A) are the most thoroughly understood T cells B) release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells C) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions D) decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases - C Respiratory control centers are located in the ___________. A) upper spinal cord and medulla B) midbrain and medulla C) pons and midbrain D) medulla and pons - D Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is: A) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere C) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere - A Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to make them tasty. This phenomenon is termed _____________. A) agglutination
B) diapedesis C) opsonization D) chemotaxis - C Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies. A) IgM is well adapted for precipitation and agglutination B) the least common antibody is IgG C) complement fixation is the main mechanism by which IgD provides protection D) neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together - A Natural killer (NK) cells ____________. A) are also called cytotoxic T cells B) can kill cancer cells before the specific immune system is activated C) are a type of phagocyte D) are cells of the adaptive immune system - B Helper T cells ________________. A) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin B) release B7 proteins C) often function to decrease the immune response D) function in activating both cytotoxic T and B lymphocytes - D Cytotoxic T cells ______________. A) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function B) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized C) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations D) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells - D Which of the following cells is the most important for proper specific immunity? A) helper T cell B) APC C) cytotoxic T cell D) B cell - A Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________________. A) B lymphocytes B) T lymphocytes C) pinocytosis
