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CCHT Exam Practice 240 Questions And Answers
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1. AAMI Chemical Analysis of water used for hemodialysis is tested: annually
2. The main difference between an arteriovenous shunt (AVS) and an arteri- ovenous
fistula (AVF) is an:
AVF is entirely within the arm. AVS is entirely within the arm. AVF is more likely to become clotted or infected AVF requires an external tube.: AVF is entirely within the arm. AVF is more likely to become clotted or infected
3. Which of the following kidney structures connects with and delivers urine directly to
the ureter?
Pelvis Calyx Glomerulus Cortex: Pelvis
4. The glomerular filtration rate is an important index of renal function and in the
normal adult is approximately:
125 mL/min/1.73 m2.
50 mL/min/1.73 m2. 75 mL/min/1.73 m2. 200 mL/min/1.73 m2.: 125 mL/min/1.73 m2.
5. All of following conditions are associated with chronic kidney failure EX- CEPT:
hypoparathyroidism. low hemoglobin. hyperkalemia. hyperphosphatemia: hypoparathyroidism
6. Uremia may cause which of the following conditions?
All of the above Itching Edema (swelling) of the extremities Anemia: All of the above
7. The most likely cause of post-renal failure is:
benign prostatic hypertrophy.
with her. During the conversation she states she routinely eats the following foods. Which one is highest in potassium?: bananas
18. A reason why a dialysis technician is to be certified is: It's a new Federal regulation
19. A rise in transmembrane pressure in a low flux dialyzer during hemodial- ysis is
indicative of: Clotting of extracorporeal circuit
20. A teammate asks you to document the normal saline he just gave to Mr. Smith. You
would:: Never document something that someone else did
21. A true aneurysm can be dangerous because it: May rupture and cause the patient to
bleed profusely
22. A patient's laboratory results indicate that the predialysis BUN level was lower than
the post dialysis BUN level. When interpreting these findings the
technician should seek the answer to which of these questions?: Was the predialysis sample drawn from the venous port?
23. A rapid pulse of 104 beats/minute would indicate that the patient has:: -
Tachycardia
24. A patient's dry weight is 154.0 (70kg) and the patient's pre treatment weight is 158.4.
(72kg). For a four- hour treatment, how many mL/ hour must the patient lose to reach dry weight?: 500
25. AAMI standards for the total microbial count of dialysate shall not exceed:-
: 200 CFU/mL
26. Acceptable interdialytic weight gains are: 3-5% of EDW
27. According to AAMI the standard level for endotoxins levels is: Less than two (2)
EU/mL
28. Albumin is an important test that tells about the patient's: Nutritional
29. All of the following are phosphate binders except:: Vitamin B
30. Asepsis is defined as: The absence of disease producing organisms
31. Based on Mrs Smith's total amount of fluid to be removed, what is the
ultrafiltration rate per hour (mL/hr) for her 4 hour treatment?: 1,385 mL/hr
32. Before a hemodialysis treatment, the technician removes the cap from the fistula
needle and accidentally touches the chair with the tip of the needle. Which of these actions should the technician take first?: Discard the needle
33. Dialysate that is too hot will cause: Hemolysis
34. Dry weight is defined as the: Weight at which the patient has no edema or fluid in the
lungs and BP is normal
42. During the hemodialysis treatment, a patient complains of feeling chilled. In addition
to getting the patient a blanket, which of these actions should the technician take?: Take the patient's temperature
43. During the set up of a hemodialysis machine, the alarm test for conductiv- ity fails.
Which of these actions should the dialysis technician take?: Notify the equipment technician
44. ESRD specific tests such as BUN, Creatinine, and URR are: Indicators of the adequacy of
the renal replacement therapy
45. Excess fluid is forced out of the blood and into the dialysate during dialysis by which
principle: Ultrafiltration
46. Feed conductivity- product conductivity divided by x 100 is the formula
calculation of: Percent rejection
47. Fluid to be removed divided by the treatment time tells us: The ultrafiltration rate
48. Germicide rebound occurs due to:: Inadequate dialyzer priming
49. Hives, itching, tightness of the chest and respiratory distress may be signs and
symptoms of:: Anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction)
50. Hyperkalemia can lead to: Cardiac arrest
51. If the extracorporeal circuit clots and it must be discarded, it would be most important
to monitor the patient's serum level of:: Hemoglobin
52. In reuse, the blood path integrity is tested to: Check dialyzer for total cell volume
53. Lidocaine is administered: Subcutaneous
54. Low albumin levels in the dialysis patient have been linked with:: Higher
hospitalization and death rates
55. Medications that dialyze easily are all except: Digoxin
56. Mr. Jones demonstrates how to wash his aces. This is an example of which adult
learning principle?: Psychomotor
57. Mr. Jones suffers from constipation. He goes to the drug store to buy a laxative.
Mr Jones should avoid which medication?: Milk of Magnesia
58. Mr. Roberts verbalized how to hand crank his blood pump in the event of an
emergency. This is an example of which adult principle?: Cognitive
59. Mrs. Smith arrives for dialysis treatment complaining of shortness of breath. Her pre
dialysis weight is 4.7 kilograms above the last post treatment weight. The dialysis technician reweighed and verified the weight. Which of the actions should the dialysis technician take next?: Notify the nurse of the need for an assessment
60. Mrs Smith dry weight is 62 kg. Her pretreatment weight when she came in for
treatment on Monday was 67 kg. The priming saline amount is 240 mL, the
Nitrogen) are performed to prevent:: Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome
73. Prior cannulation a technician notices the skin over the patient's fistula is reddened
and warm to touch. These symptoms are most likely due to:: An infection
74. A medication used to treat anemia is: Epogen
75. The most important monitor in the dialysis setting is:: Teammate
76. The most frequent cause of death in the first year post transplant is:: In- fection
77. The normal range of resting respirations in an adult is: 12-20 breaths per min
78. The leading cause of chronic kidney disease for adults in the United States::
Diabetes
79. The minimum dwell time to achieve sterilization with the chemical Renalin is: 24
hours
80. The most important intervention to prevent the spread of infection is: -
Cleansing of the hands
81. The movement of fluid from the tissue towards a higher concentration of sodium in
the blood is an example of: Osmosis
82. The functional unit of the kidney, or the structure in the kidney that does the work,
is the: Nephron
83. The bruit in a Av fistula or graft is detected by: Listening with a stethoscope
84. The hemodialysis machine continuously monitors many parameters. Which of these
parameters must be verified by an external measuring device?- : Temperature and transmembrane pressure
85. The National standard, based on the KDOQI (kidney Disease Outcomes Quality
Initiative) guidelines, for the Urea Reduction Rate (URR) is a ratio greater than:: 65%
86. The most common complication in Peritoneal dialysis is:: Peritonitis
87. The most important member of the patient care team is the: Patient
88. The medication used to improve calcium absorption is:: Zemplar
89. The minimum amount of experience required to take the NNCC certifying exam is::
6 months
90. The usual fluid allowance for a person with kidney failure is: 1.0 to 1.5 liters per day
91. The organization that sets the standards for dialysis water quality is called-
: AAMI
92. Total cell volume (TCV) is an indirect measure of the:: Performance of the dialyzer
93. Total chlorine levels in the water are tested: Before each patient shift or every four hours
94. The purpose of using counter-current flow is to: Increase the rate of waste removal
103. The reprocessed dialyzer is carefully rinsed prior to patient use to re- move:
Residual Sterilant
104. The part of the cell wall of bacteria that, when released, can cause fever in
hemodialysis patient's is:: Endotoxin
105. The venous needle in an AV fistula: Should point in the direction of the blood flow
106. The total pressure that exists across the dialyzer membrane is called: -
Transmembrane pressure
107. The substance that may be added to the municipal drinking water to make it clearer
is:: Aluminum
108. The most accurate measure of dialysis adequacy?: Kt/V
109. The component in dialysate that is used to correct metabolic acidosis?-
: Bicarbonate
110. What is most likely to cause a high venous pressure alarm?: Kinking of the venous
blood line
111. What lab tests are used to monitor anemia in the ESRD patient?: Hemo-
globin/Hematocrit
112. Which learning domain is knowledge based?: Cognitive
113. What is the classic sign of hemolysis?: Cranberry juice colored blood in the venous line
114. What is highest in phosphorus?: Ice Cream
115. When fluid replacement is necessary during the hemodialysis treatment, which of
the following solutions is used?: O.9% normal saline
116. What is not a symptom of uremia?: Elevated hematocrit
117. What is a cause of hypotension during and after dialysis treatments?: -
Removing too much fluid
118. What water is considered to be safe water for dialysis?: Dialysis quality water
119. What is the largest needle?: 14 gauge
120. What actions would increase diffusion during dialysis?: Using a bath that will provide
a greater concentration gradient
121. What diffuses from the patient's blood during dialysis?: Urea
122. What is the most important activity that the dialysis technician can per- form to
prevent the spread of infectious disease in the dialysis clinic?: Hand- washing
123. When cannulating. The tips of the needles should be at least: 2.0 inches apart
124. What would indicate a need to increase the estimated dry weight (EDW)?-
: Hypotension and cramping
production of red blood cells
138. How long can a used dialyzer sit out before reprocessing?: 2 hours
139. How long can a reprocessed dialyzer sit out to dry before use?: 11 hours
140. What is a reused dialyzer shelf life?: 14 days
141. What is a reuse dialyzer (TCV) percentage: 80%
142. What does AAMI stand for?: Association for the Advancement of Medical
Instrumentation
143. The base used to maintain an acceptable dialysate pH(acid/base balance). A buffer:
Bicarbonate
144. What is BUN?: Blood urea nitrogen, the end product of protein metabolism
145. What is a aneurysm?: A ballooning of the AV fistula, sometimes caused by improper
rotation of needle sites
146. An irregular heart beat: dysrhythmia
147. Difficulty breathing: Dyspnea
148. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the body tissues causing swelling. Fluid
accumulated in the interstitial space: Edema
149. What is Epogen given for?: A medication (synthetic erythropoietin) used to stimulate
production of red blood cells
150. What is extracorporeal circuit?: The circuit "outside body" that carries blood from the
patient through dialyzer and back to the patient. The dialyzer and blood lines make up the circuit
151. What is filtration?: The process of passing fluid through a filter or semiperme- able
membrane.
152. What is glomerulus?: A tuft of capillaries in the nephron that act as filters to remove
waste products, fluid and excess electrolytes from the blood as it passes through the kidney.
153. The measurement of the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood.
This measure is affected by vascular volume.: Hematocrit (HCT)
154. A localized mass of clotted or partially clotted blood confined within an organ or
tissue, which may be discolored (bruised).: Hematoma
155. A protein that carries oxygen from the lung to the body tissue and transports
carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs.: Hemoglobin (HB)
156. What is the rupture of red blood cells? ( lysis is cell rupture): Hemolysis
157. The cessation of bleeding due to clotting. In dialysis, hemostasis refers to the
cessation of bleeding from a needle site.: Hemostasis
158. An excess of potassium in the blood caused by dietary indiscretion, certain
medications, internal bleeding, cellular injury or blood transfusion.: - hyperkalemia
159. What are symptoms of hyperkalemia?: Muscle weakness, nausea, and vom- iting
167. What is phosphorus?: An electrolyte necessary for bone formation, energy transfer,
andneuromuscular function
168. What is semipermeable membrane?: Very thin flexible sheets of material, such as
cellophane, with pores that allow smaller particles or molecules to pass through while blocking larger ones.
169. What is steal syndrome?: A condition caused when the surgical diversion of the arterial
blood supply through the vascular access deprives the distal portion of the access extremity of oxygenated blood.
170. What is stenosis?: A narrowing of blood vessels due to the build up of hyper- trophic
tissue, anatomical narrowing if the vessels, or surgical technique problems.
171. What is Tachycardia?: Rapid heart beat
172. What is ultrafiltration?: Controlled fluid removal achieved by increasing or
decreasing the amount of fluid moves across a semipermeable membrane by controlling hydrostatic pressure
173. What is urea?: A waste product of protein metabolism affected by dietary intake.
174. What is vitamin B-12?: A vitamin that helps the body produce normal size cells with
strong cell walls.
175. What is vitamin D?: A vitamin that, in its active form helps maintain the balance of
blood calcium and phosphorus with calcium and phosphorus stored in the bones.
176. What is bradycardia?: A slow heart rate
177. One sign and symptom of fluid overload?: Hypertension
178. Water moves across a membrane from an area of lower solute concentra- tion to an
area of higher solute concentration by which principle?: Osmosis
179. Waste products are removed during dialysis by which principle?: Diffusion
180. Excess fluid is forced out of the blood and into the dialysate during dialysis by
which principle?: Ultrafiltration
181. The movement of fluid from the tissue towards higher concentration of sodium in
the blood is an example of: Osmosis
182. Decreasing the patient's prescribed blood flow rate affects the rate of?: -
Diffusion
183. The minimum dwell time to achieve sterilization with the chemical renalin is?: 11
hours
184. The reprocessed dialyzer is carefully rinsed prior to patient use to re- move::
Residual Sterilant
185. The patient's machine alarms blood leak, where would you draw the sample from
to determine if there is a blood leak?: Box port behind the machine
186. What causes symptoms of fever and chills?: Pyrogen Reaction
