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CCI RCIS EXAM,CCI RCIS EXAM,CCI RCIS EXAM, Exams of Nursing

Dakota Wesleyan University (DWU)Nursing

CCI RCIS EXAM CCI RCIS EXAM CCI RCIS EXAM CCI RCIS EXAM

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 06/16/2026

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CCI RCIS EXAM
- .035 x 260 cm
1.
When intervening in the mid/distal right leg from a radial approach,
which is the best wire choice?
- .038 x 150 cm
- .035 x 180 cm
- .038 x 180 cm
- .035 x 260 cm
- compliance
2.
Which of the following BEST describes a balloon's ability to yield
to changes in pressure?
-
flexibility
-
pushability
-
trackability
-
compliance
-
to remove calcific atherosclerotic plaque
3.
What is the PRIMARY therapeutic reason for using rotational
atherectomy as an adjunctive therapy for PCI?
-
to score fibrotic plaque
-
to remove calcific atherosclerotic plaque
-
to pulverize plaque using electromagnetic energy
-
to remove thrombus using the Bernoulli/Venturi effect
-
pull clot back into a vein
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CCI RCIS EXAM

- .035 x 260 cm

  1. When intervening in the mid/distal right leg from a radial approach, which is the best wire choice?
  • .038 x 150 cm
  • .035 x 180 cm
  • .038 x 180 cm
  • .035 x 260 cm - compliance
  1. Which of the following BEST describes a balloon's ability to yield to changes in pressure?
  • flexibility
  • pushability
  • trackability
  • compliance
  • to remove calcific atherosclerotic plaque
  1. What is the PRIMARY therapeutic reason for using rotational atherectomy as an adjunctive therapy for PCI?
  • to score fibrotic plaque
  • to remove calcific atherosclerotic plaque
  • to pulverize plaque using electromagnetic energy
  • to remove thrombus using the Bernoulli/Venturi effect
  • pull clot back into a vein
  1. A Forgarty balloon is commonly used to -.
  • dilate a stenotic lesion
  • push plaque downstream
  • pull clot back into a vein
  • measure right heart pressure
  • stent
  • angioplasty
  • covered stent
  1. Select the methods used to treat flow limiting dissections (select three)
  • stent
  • angioplasty
  • atherectomy
  • covered stent
  • thrombectomy
  • retractable coil
  • vasodilator drug
  • guide with side holes
  • temporary pacing wire
  1. When using a rotational atherectomy device in the RCA, what else should you consider using? (choose 3)
  • stiff wire
  • large size burr
  • vasodilator drug
  • guide with side holes
  • temporary pacing wire
  • NPO status
  • patient allergies
  1. Which actions should be completed when prepping the patient for a transradial cardiac catheterization? (chose 2 responses)
  • prep right groin
  • position wrist in prone position
  • IV antibiotics given for the procedure
  • start IV on same arm as radial access
  • Allen's test performed prior to wrist prep
  • body surface area
  1. Cardiac index is calculated by dividing cardiac output in liters per minute by
  • heart rate
  • stroke volume
  • body surface area
  • mean ventricular pressure - 5 - 6
  1. The patient has a pulse but is in respiratory arrest. You must give 1 breath every seconds.
  • 2 - 3
  • 3 - 4
  • 4 - 5
  • 5 - 6 - to reduce the amount of balloon movement during inflation
  1. Why is rapid ventricular pacing used for an aortic balloon valvuloplasty procedure?
  • to increase oxygen demand for coronary perfusion
  • to increase cardiac output during the balloon inflation
  • to reduce the amount of balloon movement during inflation
  • to reduce the need for coronary perfusion during the inflation period
  • aspirin, morphine, nitroglycerin, oxygen
  1. Immediate ED general treatment should include
  • aspirin, Lasix, nitroglycerin, and oxygen
  • aspirin, Lasix, morphine, and nitroglycerin
  • aspirin, morphine, nitroglycerin, oxygen
  • aspirin, fibrinolytic, morphine, and nitroglycerin
  • personal protective equipment
  1. The term "standard precautions" refers to.
  • informed consent
  • aseptic technique
  • advanced directives
  • personal protective equipment
  • orbital and directional
  1. Which atherectomy catheters shave and sand away plaque?
  • orbital and directional
  • vascular and intraspinal
  • sculpting balloon and stent
  • cutting balloon and infusion catheter
  • extraction
  1. What type of catheter is used for a thrombectomy?
  • ablation
  • perfusion
  1. When transferring a patient to the recovery area or back to their room, what should be the action for the person who achieved hemostasis of the procedure site?
  • thank the patient for having their procedure with your facility and get the room ready for the next patient
  • Confirm the transporter knows how to hold manual pressure in case the hemostasis site starts to bleed during transport to recovery/ patient room
  • Discuss the site with the transporter to pass the details forward and remind the patient to keep the affected site still and relaxed during their recovery
  • go with the patient and physically show the receiving RN the site to discuss any hemostasis details such as vessel, sheath size, and hematoma concerns
  • anterior
  1. In a standard 12 lead ECG, the wall is represented in leads V3 and V4.
  • lateral
  • inferior
  • anterior
  • anteroseptal
  • IVUS
  1. What imaging modality is used to confirm proper stent apposition?
  • FFR
  • ICE
  • IABP
  • IVUS
  • anode
  1. When delivering radiation, photons are emitted from the
  • anode
  • cathode
  • focal spot
  • surface target
  • proximal
  1. In determining cardiac output via the thermal dilution method, saline is injected into the port of the PA catheter.
  • distal
  • dorsal
  • medial
  • proximal
  • Image Intensifier
  1. The device that converts x-rays into visible light is the
  • anode
  • cathode
  • image intensifier
  • tungsten filament
  • Closure of the semilunar valves
  1. Which of the following is responsible for producing the S2 heart sound?
  • ventricular filling
  • ventricular distensibility
  • closure of the semilunar valves
  • closure of the atria-ventricular valves
  • aneurysm
  • flail leaflet
  • chordae rupture
  • thrombis formation
  • nausea
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  1. Which of the listed signs and symptoms may indicate a vasovagal response? (choose 3)
  • nausea
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • hypertension
  • intravascular ultrasound
  1. Which of the following can be used to assure good stent apposition during PCI?
  • coronary flow reserve
  • fractional flow reserve
  • intravascular ultrasound
  • digital subtraction angiography - 3
  1. What is the TIMI grade of a vessel that has complete perfusion?
  • 0
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

- right popliteal or left/right femoral artery

  1. What are the possible vascular access sites for a left femoral artery intervention?
  • left/right radial artery or left femoral artery
  • left popliteal or left femoral artery
  • right popliteal or left/right femoral artery
  • left/right radial artery, right femoral artery, or left/right popliteal artery
  • transcutaneous
  1. Which of the following pacing methods requires the use of external pacing pads?
  • transarterial
  • transvenous
  • transcutaneous
  • transesophageal
  • aortic insufficiency
  1. Which of the following is associated with elevated pulse pressure?
  • hyperlipidemia
  • arterial sclerosis
  • aortic insufficiency
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • Angioseal
  1. Which vascular closure device has a suture that is self-tightening?
  • Mynx
  • Perclose
  • the minimum amount of mA required to elicit a ventricular response
  1. What BEST describes the threshold for a temporary pacemaker?
  • the maximum amount of time between pacer discharge cycles
  • the minimum amount of mA required to elicit a ventricular response
  • the maximum amount of mA necessary to block the normal sinus rhythm
  • the minimum amount of m/sec necessary to overdrive the normal sinus rhythm
  • allows distal perfusion
  1. What is advantage to using a filter versus a balloon occlusion distal protection device?
  • allows distal perfusion
  • lower profile of the device
  • ensures distal vessel occlusion
  • allows small embolic particles to pass - 5
  1. A 1.66 mm diameter sheath is equivalent to what French size?
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7 - FFR
  1. Equalization of aortic and arterial pressures is associated with which procedural device?
  • CFR

- FFR

- OCT

- IVUS

  • analgesia, sedation, 200 mcg NTG IA injection
  1. Which of the following should be considered for radial artery spasm during sheath removal?
  • IV fluid bolus, analgesia, sedation
  • analgesia, sedation, 200 mcg NTG IA injection
  • analgesia, sedation, 1% lidocaine SQ injection
  • IV fluid bolus, cold compress, 200 mcg NTG IA injection
  • atrial septal defect
  1. Which of the following conditions would invalidate FICK cardiac output results?
  • atrial septal defect
  • aortic regurgitation
  • pulmonary stenosis
  • systemic hypertension
  • in the antecubital area, on the outside of the arm
  1. The cephalic vein is located?
  • on the anterior surface of the hand
  • in the antecubital area, on the outside of the arm
  • in the antecubital area, near the center of the arm
  • in the antecubital area, on the inner side of the arm - decreased LV compliance; hyperdynamic LV function
  1. Which of the following are TYPICAL findings in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

- S

  1. A ventricular gallop is associated with which heart sound?
  • S
  • S
  • S
  • S
  • heparin
  1. Activated clotting time is used to assess the effects of which medication?
  • aspirin
  • heparin
  • abciximab
  • ticagrelor
  • ACT
  1. What lab test is used to validate the effects of protamine sulfate?
  • PT
  • ACT
  • INR
  • PTT
  • Barbeau
  1. The reverse test is used to evaluate radial artery patency following radial artery sheath removal and placement of compression device.
  • Allen
  • Addison
  • Barbeau
  • Braunwald - 2.5 mm
  1. Which of the following vessel diameters would have the highest restenosis rate?
  • 2.5 mm
  • 3.5 mm
  • 4.5 mm
  • 5.5 mm - rapid saline injection
  1. is used to reduce the cavitation effect and expanding gas bubbles inside the artery during laser atherectomy procedures.
  • intracoronary NTG
  • rapid saline injection
  • achieving an ACT >
  • a distal protection device
  • Angiojet
  • Cleaner
  • Balloon angioplasty
  1. Which of the following types of devices are used to macerate/breakdown a blood clot? (choose 3)
  • stent
  • Angiojet
  • Cleaner
  • Embolization
  • Balloon Angioplasty
  • Thrombolytic infusion
  • ostial lesion
  • existing dissection
  • unprotected LMCA
  • saphenous vein graft
  • angiographic evidence of thrombus
  • Guidewire
  • Torque device
  • Microcatheter
  • Atherectomy device
  1. In peripheral interventions, which equipment is used to steer across a lesion? (select 4)
  • Balloon
  • Guidewire
  • Torque device
  • Microcatheter
  • Diagnostic catheter
  • Atherectomy device
  • poor stent apposition
  1. Which of the following is associated with in-stent restenosis?
  • pre-dilation
  • use of GP IIb/IIIa
  • poor stent apposition
  • use of non-ionic contrast
  • arms restrained
  • cautery grounding pads attached to patient
  • IV located in the arm on the same side as the implanted device
  1. What procedural setups should be considered when preparing a patient for a pacemaker/ICD implant? (choose 3)
  • arms restrained
  • oxygen mask on patient at 10 L/min
  • cautery grounding pads attached to patient
  • IV located in the arm on the same side as the implanted device
  • IV located in the arm on the opposite side as the implanted device
  • code cart
  • suction setup
  • airway equipment
  • defibrillator/ transcutaneous pacing
  1. What EMERGENCY equipment should be accessible during a cardiac catheterization procedure? (choose 4)
  • code cart
  • ACT machine
  • suction setup
  • airway equipment
  • blood for transfusion
  • defibrillator/ transcutaneous pacing
  • creatinine
  1. What blood chemistry would be used to determine the amount of contrast used in an angiographic procedure?
  • sodium
  • calcium
  • creatinine
  • potassium - 60 to 90
  1. A cutting balloon should be left inflated for seconds at nominal pressure to score the lesion.