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PATHO FHEA Midterm study guide
Sodium (Na+), Calcium (Ca++), Chloride (CL-), and sodium bicarbonate (HCO3-) are all examples of charged particles that share which of the following common feature? - Answer -More abundant in extracellular fluid (ECF) The single largest component of the animal cell membrane is: - Answer -Protein Which of the following is a true statement about the funchtion of the cell membrane? - Answer -It maintains ICF (intracellular fluid) separate from ECF (extracellular fluid) Both Lysosomes and peroxisomes digest organic molecules. A primary difference between the two is that: - Answer -Peroxisomes use molecular oxygen Maintaining cell volume and membrane potential are important functions of the: - Answer -Cell Membrane protein synthesis is a process in which organelles work together to synthesize a mature protein. Which statement best describes the process by which mature functional proteins are produced? - Answer -The rough endoplasmic reticulum manufactures proteins and the Golgi apparatus modifies them with enzymes. The cell membrane functions to: - Answer -Act as an electrical unit.
The cytoskeleton is composed of actin, filaments, microtubules and intermediate filaments. Which of the following is a true statement about the cytoskeleton? - Answer -Maintains organization of Organelles The osmolality of ECF is: - Answer -The same as ICF A variety of physiologic mechanisms are employed to transport fluid and solutes across the cell membrane, which one of them is described by the equation J= [D(A) (Cin-Cout)]/x? - Answer -Difussion Fick's first law of diffusion states that flux is decreased when --- is increased - Answer -Thickness of the membrane Membrane potential is created by the separation of charges by the cell membrane. The Cell membrane gets its change as a function of the ion: - Answer -That is drawn to the inner aspect of the membrane The absolute refractory period is the time during which: - Answer -No stimulus can cause a second action potential. The pressure gradient created when there are different concentrations of a solute on either side of a membrane and the solute can not cross the membrane is a function of: - Answer -Osmosis. Diffusion that utilizes a carrier-mediated process to allow the transport of particles that are too large to move by simple diffusion is called: - Answer -Facilitated diffusion when energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP molecules is used to transport ions against the concentration gradient, this is called: - Answer -Active transport The upstroke of the action potential of various cell types is initiated through the: - Answer -Opening of sodium channels Stages of the action potential include all of the following except: - Answer -Reverse stroke
Malaise, fever, and leukocytosis are all systemic manifestations of: - Answer -Localized necrosis The difference between dry and wet gangrene is that: - Answer -Wet gangrene is typically found on internal organs. The inflammatory response is characterized by a series of stages. Chemotaxis occurs during the --- stage.
- Answer -Emigration When cells are repeatedly exposed to injury, they can mutate in an effort to replace themselves with a cell type better prepared to resist injury. This is known as: - Answer -Metaplasia. which method of cellular adaptation is characterized by accelerated mitotic division? - Answer - Hyperplasia With respect to the developing red blood cell, the nucleus is ejected with the cell is at which of the following stages of development - Answer -reticulocyte Based upon knowledge of the physiology of iron deficiency anemia, the clinician knows that when an adult presents with microcytic anemia and no apparent cause of blood loss, evaluation, and management should include: - Answer -Gastrointestinal endoscopic evaluation Division of red blood cells and subsequent development of an adequate red blood cell count relies on the presence of----- in the maturation stages - Answer -A nucleus Hemoglobin synthesis occurs during the reticulocyte stage of red blood cell production. It is a product of the assembly of: - Answer -Four protein chains-- two alpha and two beta. In order to absorb vitamin B12, the patient must be able to produce intrinsic factor from a healthy : - Answer -Gastric parietal cell Mature red blood cell development is best described by the following progression: - Answer -Bursting form unit, pro-erythroblast, reticulocyte
The predominant form of healthy hemoglobin in a healthy individual is - Answer -Hemoglobin A When evaluating causes of common anemias, the clinician recognizes that the majority of iron heme synthesis comes from: - Answer -Recycled red blood cells which of the following anemias is characterized by a single amino acid substitution? - Answer -Sickle cell anemia while evaluating the potential causes of macrocytic anemia in a patient, the clinician recognizes that a history of gastrointestinal surgery is suspicious for which type of anemia - Answer -Pernicious anemia A fibrin clot is formed to arrest bleeding and prevent exsanguination. Control of the size of the clot is maintained with which of the following mechanisms - Answer -Activation of protein C Adhesion, aggregation, and secretion are all characteristics of: - Answer -Platelet functional activity Hemostasis and subsequent arrest of bleeding after vessel injury is a two-step process. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathway activation are mechanisms of clotting that share which common feature? - Answer - Activation of factor x In the cell-based model of clotting, thrombin activates all of the following except - Answer -plasminogen The cell- based model of clotting highlights the role of thrombin as---- activation which results in positive feedback cycle of clot extension. - Answer -Platelet The cell-based model of clotting is a relatively new theory and offers a different approach to the relationship between primary and secondary clotting. The defining feature of this theory is that it: - Answer -Reflects the interrelated role that thrombin plays in both fibrinogen and platelet activation The primary function of plasmin is to: - Answer -Degrade the clot. The three phases of the cell-based model of clotting are: - Answer -Initiation, amplification, propagation.
The term "inward rectifier" is another name for: - Answer -K+ channels open at rest. Open ___ channels are responsible for maintaining voltage in resting state. - Answer -Potassium (K+) After an electrical stimulus is generated by the atrioventricular (AV) node, which ion channels open to affect the depolarization stage 0? - Answer -Na+ Cardiac contraction occurs when calcium channels open and calcium influx occurs. What is the stimulus that opens calcium channels? - Answer -Depolarization from Na+ influx In contractile cells, what is happening to Na+ channels in phase 3? - Answer -h gates recover. Which ion is not generally regarded to be a factor in fast response action potentials? - Answer -Cl- Which of the following is a unique feature of action potentials in atria? - Answer -The plateau phase is not as prominent as fast response cells. Among the variety of tissue types found in cardiac muscle, which type has the greatest ability to beat autonomously? - Answer -Sinoatrial (SA) node tissue One of the consequences of ischemic myocardium is coronary artery disease (CAD). This can lead to dysrhythmia because it: - Answer -Depolarizes myocardium. The specialized rapid conduction tissue that is important to ventricular muscle contraction is known as: - Answer -The His-Purkinje System The conduction block phenomenon characterized by slow conduction and unidirectional block is known as: - Answer -A re-entry block. Contraction of cardiac cells occurs as a consequence of filament sliding and binding. Which of the filaments is anchored onto Z bands of the sarcomere? - Answer -Actin
Which of the following events occurs first during mechanical contraction of the myocardium? - Answer - Calcium is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum. According to the Frank-Starling Performance Curve, all of the following are indices of cardiac performance except: - Answer -Sympathetic nervous system. The force that the myocardium must develop for the cells of the ventricle to shorten is called: - Answer - Afterload. Which of the following statements is false regarding preload? - Answer -An overstretched sarcomere will result in excessive force. The most inner layer of cells in the artery is called the: - Answer -Endothelium Macrophages that become engorged with oxidized LDLs are called: - Answer -Foam cells Atherosclerotic plaque develops when engorged macrophages: - Answer -Lodge in the intimal layer of vascular muscle. The American Heart Association classification of atherosclerotic lesions categorizes an endothelial break as: - Answer -Grade IV Endothelial dysfunction is a key event in early vascular disease. A primary problem is that dysfunctional endothelial cells cannot: - Answer -Produce nitric oxide. Theories of the etiology of heart disease include all of the following except: - Answer -Psychosocial stressors. Coronary artery disease has been significantly linked to chronic infection caused by: - Answer - Chlamydia pneumoniae. Recommended treatment to reduce elevated homocysteine is: - Answer -Folic Acid
Which of the following management options is most effective in minimizing edema of the lower extremities resulting from chronic venous insufficiency? - Answer -Elevation of the legs The valve responsible for preventing backflow into the left atrium is the: - Answer -Mitral valve. The most common cause of acute pericarditis is: - Answer -Viral infection. The most outer layer of the heart is the: - Answer -Fibrous pericardium. Chemical synapses are the primary mechanism by which neurons communicate. They may be either: - Answer -Excitatory or inhibitory. Synaptic transmission involves all of the following except - Answer -Activation of transmitter. When a neuron is depolarized, what happens? - Answer -The chemical transmitter is released. The single most time--consuming step in the process of synaptic transmission is: - Answer -Fusion and exocytosis. Glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord that catalyzes the opening of: - Answer -Cl- channels. Nicotinic ACh receptors are typically found in: - Answer -Skeletal muscle end plates. All of the following neurotransmitters may be excitatory except: - Answer -Dopamine The autonomic nervous system anatomy is generally divided into two primary sections. The organization of the autonomic nervous system is based upon: - Answer -Anatomy or chemistry.
The reason that cholinergic discharge is discrete and of short duration is that: - Answer - Acetylcholinesterase typically breaks down acetylcholine immediately upon its discharge. The classic "fear/flight/fight" response is a consequence of widespread noradrenergic discharge and is characterized by: - Answer -Lowered threshold in the reticular formation. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is characterized by: - Answer -The potential for full recovery. The primary neurotransmitter deficiency that characterizes the pathophysiology of depression is - Answer -Norepinephrine Medical conditions that may predispose to or exacerbate depression include all of the following except:
- Answer -Hyperparathyroidism Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the most commonly- prescribed medication for depression. Mild forms of serotonin syndrome include: - Answer -Tremor The pathophysiology of seizure disorder can be best described as: - Answer -Excessive neuronal discharge. All of the following can create an increased risk of seizure except: - Answer -Hyperglycemia Which neurological disorder is characterized by ACh receptors producing an impulse disruption between neuron and neuromuscular junction? - Answer -Myasthenia gravis Approximately three-quarters of patients with myasthenia gravis are found to have: - Answer -A thymus disorder. Demyelination in the peripheral nervous system that is acute in onset may can be due to: - Answer - Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection.
