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Technology Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the principle of informed consent in radiologic practice? A) Obtaining verbal permission only for routine exams B) Providing the patient with sufficient information about the procedure, risks, and alternatives, then obtaining written permission C) Allowing the patient to sign a generic hospital form without explanation D) Requiring consent only when contrast media will be used Answer: B Explanation: Informed consent requires that the patient be given understandable information about the procedure, its benefits, risks, and alternatives, after which a written signature is obtained. Question 2. A patient with a known iodine allergy requires a contrast study. Which contrast medium is most appropriate? A) Non‑ionic, low‑osmolality iodinated contrast B) Ionic, high‑osmolality iodinated contrast C) Gadolinium‑based contrast D) No contrast should be administered Answer: C Explanation: Gadolinium‑based agents are used as alternatives for patients allergic to iodine, especially in MRI studies; they have a different chemical composition. Question 3. Which of the following is a standard precaution to prevent transmission of bloodborne pathogens? A) Using a lead apron for every patient
Technology Practice Exam
B) Wearing gloves when there is a potential for exposure to blood or bodily fluids C) Applying a sterile drape over the patient’s chest D) Using a respiratory mask for all patients Answer: B Explanation: Standard precautions include hand hygiene and wearing gloves whenever there is potential exposure to blood or bodily fluids. Question 4. In the event of a patient experiencing a seizure during an imaging procedure, the technologist should first: A) Turn off the X‑ray tube and leave the room immediately B) Administer a sedative medication C) Ensure the patient’s airway is clear and protect them from injury D) Continue the exam to finish the image acquisition Answer: C Explanation: The priority is patient safety: maintain airway patency and prevent injury. The equipment can be turned off afterward. Question 5. The biological effect of radiation that has a threshold dose and severity increases with dose is called: A) Stochastic effect B) Deterministic effect C) Somatic effect D) Genetic effect
Technology Practice Exam
A) Lead apron covering the abdomen only B) Thyroid collar made of 0.5 mm lead equivalent C) Lead glasses D) Mobile lead shield placed behind the patient Answer: B Explanation: A thyroid collar directly protects the thyroid gland from scatter radiation. Question 9. According to the inverse square law, if the distance between the X‑ray source and the image receptor is doubled, the intensity of the X‑ray beam at the receptor will: A) Remain the same B) Increase by a factor of 2 C) Decrease to one‑quarter of its original intensity D) Decrease by half Answer: C Explanation: Intensity varies inversely with the square of the distance; doubling the distance reduces intensity to 1/4. Question 10. Which technical factor primarily influences image contrast in a radiograph? A) mAs B) kVp C) SID D) Grid ratio
Technology Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: kVp determines the beam’s penetrating ability and thus the contrast; higher kVp reduces contrast. Question 11. Increasing the mAs during exposure will most directly affect: A) Image contrast B) Image density (overall blackness) C) Patient dose only, not image quality D) Geometric unsharpness Answer: B Explanation: mAs controls the number of photons produced; higher mAs increases image density and patient dose. Question 12. In digital radiography, the component that converts X‑ray photons into a visible light image is the: A) Photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP) B) Charge‑coupled device (CCD) C) Thin film transistor (TFT) array D) Image intensifier Answer: B Explanation: In direct DR systems, a CCD directly converts incoming X‑ray photons (after scintillation) into electronic signals. Question 13. A common cause of a “grid cut‑off” artifact is:
Technology Practice Exam
Answer: C Explanation: The standard KUB positioning is supine with the central ray at the level of the iliac crests; pediatric protocols may adjust kVp but the central ray location remains. Question 16. The most appropriate method to reduce motion artifact in a hand radiograph is: A) Increase the SID to 200 cm B) Use a higher mAs to shorten exposure time C) Instruct the patient to hold breath during exposure D) Apply a grid with a higher ratio Answer: B Explanation: Higher mAs shortens the exposure time, decreasing the chance of patient motion. Question 17. In a lumbar spine AP view, the central ray is directed at which anatomical landmark? A) L2 spinous process B) L4–L5 interspace C) L4 vertebral body D) Sacral hiatus Answer: C Explanation: The AP lumbar spine central ray is typically aimed at the L4 vertebral body to center the lumbar region.
Technology Practice Exam
Question 18. Which of the following best describes a “double exposure” artifact? A) Superimposition of two separate images due to failure to change the image receptor between exposures B) A ghost image caused by residual phosphor signal in CR plates C) Over‑exposure resulting in a blackened image D) A streak artifact from a malfunctioning X‑ray tube Answer: A Explanation: Double exposure occurs when the image receptor receives two exposures without being replaced, causing overlapping images. Question 19. During a fluoroscopic barium swallow study, the patient should be positioned: A) Supine with the head turned to the left B) Standing upright with the chest against the image intensifier C) Sitting upright with the barium administered orally while the image intensifier is positioned lateral to the neck D) Prone with the barium introduced via a nasogastric tube Answer: C Explanation: For a barium swallow, the patient sits upright; the intensifier is placed laterally to view the oropharynx and esophagus during oral ingestion. Question 20. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a quality control (QC) test on the collimator? A) To verify the integrity of lead aprons B) To ensure the X‑ray field size matches the selected field size on the console
Technology Practice Exam
Explanation: Severe hypertension is a contraindication for iodinated contrast; the patient should be cleared medically before proceeding. Question 23. Which of the following statements about stochastic effects of radiation is true? A) They have a threshold dose below which they do not occur B) The severity of the effect increases with dose C) They include cancer induction and genetic mutations D) They are always reversible Answer: C Explanation: Stochastic effects, such as carcinogenesis and genetic mutations, have no dose threshold and probability (not severity) increases with dose. Question 24. In an X‑ray tube, the component that emits electrons is the: A) Anode B) Cathode C) Filament housing D) Grid Answer: B Explanation: The cathode contains the heated filament that releases electrons via thermionic emission. Question 25. A technologist wants to reduce patient dose for a pediatric chest PA while maintaining image quality. Which adjustment is most effective?
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A) Increase SID from 100 cm to 150 cm B) Decrease kVp from 120 to 80 kVp C) Use a higher mAs setting D) Add a grid with a higher ratio Answer: A Explanation: Increasing SID reduces dose due to the inverse square law, and for pediatrics, a higher SID also reduces magnification without compromising image quality. Question 26. The “Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau” states that: A) Tissues with high mitotic rates are more radiosensitive B) Radiation dose is proportional to exposure time C) Image contrast is inversely related to kVp D) The focal spot size determines geometric unsharpness Answer: A Explanation: This law describes that rapidly dividing cells (high mitotic activity) are more susceptible to radiation damage. Question 27. Which of the following is a proper method for verifying the integrity of a lead apron? A) Visual inspection for cracks only B) Using a lead equivalence tester to measure attenuation at 100 kVp C) Weighing the apron before and after use D) Checking the apron’s expiration date
Technology Practice Exam
Question 30. Which type of image receptor is most commonly used for bedside portable chest radiography? A) Computed Radiography (CR) plate B) Direct Radiography (DR) flat‑panel detector C) Film‑screen cassette D) Photostimulable phosphor screen Answer: B Explanation: Modern portable units typically employ DR flat‑panel detectors for rapid image acquisition and digital workflow. Question 31. The purpose of a “grid” in radiography is to: A) Increase patient dose without affecting image quality B) Reduce scatter radiation reaching the detector, thereby improving contrast C) Focus the X‑ray beam to a smaller field size D) Protect the technologist from radiation Answer: B Explanation: Grids absorb scattered photons, enhancing image contrast at the cost of increased patient dose. Question 32. In the mAs maintenance formula (mAs₁ × d₁² = mAs₂ × d₂²), if the SID is increased from 100 cm to 150 cm, the mAs should be: A) Decreased to 44% of the original value B) Increased to 225% of the original value C) Remain unchanged
Technology Practice Exam
D) Decreased to 66% of the original value Answer: A Explanation: Using the formula, mAs₂ = mAs₁ × (d₁/d₂)² = mAs₁ × (100/150)² ≈ 0.44 mAs₁. Question 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of a digital radiography system that uses a photostimulable phosphor (CR) plate? A) Immediate image display without processing time B) Requires a scanning step to read the latent image C) Uses a CCD sensor for direct conversion of X‑rays D) Has a built‑in image intensifier Answer: B Explanation: CR plates store a latent image that must be scanned by a laser to produce a digital image. Question 34. A patient with a pacemaker requires a CT scan with contrast. The technologist should: A) Proceed as normal; CT does not affect pacemakers B) Use a low‑dose protocol and inform the radiologist of the pacemaker presence C) Cancel the exam because any ionizing radiation is contraindicated D) Remove the pacemaker before imaging Answer: B Explanation: CT can be performed with precautions; low‑dose protocols reduce radiation, and the pacemaker’s presence must be noted.
Technology Practice Exam
D) Has no impact on image quality Answer: B Explanation: Higher grid ratios remove more scatter, improving contrast but requiring increased mAs (and thus dose) to compensate for photon loss. Question 38. When performing a lateral knee view, the central ray should be angled: A) 0° (perpendicular) to the tibial plateau B) 10° caudal angle C) 10° cranial angle D) 20° caudal angle Answer: C Explanation: For a true lateral knee, the central ray is angled 10° cranial to avoid superimposition of the femoral condyles. Question 39. Which component of the X‑ray generator converts alternating current (AC) into high‑voltage direct current (DC) for the tube? A) Transformer B) Rectifier C) High‑frequency inverter D) Filament Answer: B Explanation: The rectifier changes the AC input into high‑voltage DC required for the X‑ray tube operation.
Technology Practice Exam
Question 40. The “burn‑in” artifact seen on a digital detector is caused by: A) Over‑exposure of a single image repeatedly in the same location B) Failure of the cooling system in the X‑ray tube C) Improper collimation leading to a bright spot D) Residual phosphor after a CR exposure Answer: A Explanation: Burn‑in occurs when a detector element is exposed to high radiation repeatedly, causing a permanent dark spot. Question 41. Which of the following is the most appropriate method for confirming proper positioning for a right ankle mortise view? A) Central ray 1 cm distal to the lateral malleolus, angled 15° caudal B) Central ray 1 cm proximal to the medial malleolus, angled 15° cranial C) Central ray centered over the talar dome, angled 20° caudal D) Central ray aimed at the midpoint between the medial and lateral malleoli, angle 10° caudal Answer: D Explanation: The ankle mortise view uses a central ray centered between the malleoli with a 10–15° caudal angulation to open the joint space. Question 42. In the context of radiologic ethics, the principle of “non‑maleficence” requires the technologist to: A) Obtain maximum reimbursement for services B) Avoid causing harm to patients, such as minimizing unnecessary radiation exposure
Technology Practice Exam
Answer: D Explanation: Greater SID reduces the penumbra (geometric unsharpness) because the divergent rays are more parallel when they reach the detector. Question 45. During a routine quality assurance test, the technologist measures the output of the X‑ray tube at 80 kVp and finds it to be 0.5 mGy/mAs. The required output is 0.6 mGy/mAs. The appropriate corrective action is to: A) Increase the kVp to 90 kVp B) Increase the mAs setting for all exams C) Adjust the tube voltage regulator to increase tube output at the same kVp D) Replace the X‑ray tube immediately Answer: C Explanation: The tube output can be calibrated by adjusting the voltage regulator to achieve the desired mGy/mAs at the specified kVp. Question 46. In a lateral lumbar spine view, the patient should be positioned with the hips and knees flexed to: A) Reduce lumbar lordosis and bring the vertebrae into the central ray plane B) Increase lumbar lordosis for better visualization C) Allow the central ray to pass through the sacrum only D) Eliminate the need for a grid Answer: A Explanation: Flexing hips and knees flattens the lumbar spine, reducing lordosis and aligning the vertebrae with the central ray.
Technology Practice Exam
Question 47. Which of the following is a common cause of “inverse contrast” (white‑on‑black) in a digital radiograph? A) Using a high‑kVp setting B) Selecting a negative image display mode in the PACS C) Over‑collimating the beam D) Employing a grid with a low ratio Answer: B Explanation: Inverting the display settings in the PACS can produce a negative image where dense structures appear bright. Question 48. The appropriate dose limit for occupational exposure to the lens of the eye for a radiologic technologist is: A) 150 mSv per year B) 20 mSv per year C) 500 mSv per year D) No limit, as the lens is not radiosensitive Answer: B Explanation: Current recommendations set the annual occupational dose limit for the eye lens at 20 mSv (averaged over 5 years, with no single year exceeding 50 mSv). Question 49. When performing a portable AP pelvis on a supine patient, the technologist should use which of the following to minimize motion artifact? A) Increase the SID to 250 cm B) Use a high‑frequency generator with a short exposure time
