Download CAST Exam Questions and Answers: Software Testing Fundamentals and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
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Question 1. Which of the following is a primary objective of software testing? A) To prove there are no defects B) To find defects C) To increase development costs D) To delay product release Answer: B Explanation: The main goal of testing is to find defects in the software, not to prove their absence. Question 2. Which principle states that testing can show the presence of defects, but not their absence? A) Pesticide Paradox B) Defects Cluster Together C) Testing Shows Presence of Defects D) Early Testing Answer: C Explanation: Testing can demonstrate that defects exist, but cannot guarantee that none are present. Question 3. Which is NOT one of the Seven Principles of Software Testing? A) Exhaustive testing is possible B) Early testing saves time and money C) Defects cluster together D) Testing is context-dependent Answer: A Explanation: Exhaustive testing is impossible, not possible, according to the testing principles. Question 4. What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance (QA)? A) Testing and QA are the same B) Testing is a part of QA C) QA is a part of testing D) They are unrelated Answer: B Explanation: Testing is one activity within the broader scope of quality assurance. Question 5. What is the primary difference between testing and debugging? A) Testing identifies defects, debugging removes them B) Debugging identifies defects, testing removes them C) Both are the same D) Debugging is performed before testing Answer: A Explanation: Testing detects defects, while debugging involves locating and fixing them. Question 6. Why is quality built into software from the start important? A) It reduces rework and costs B) It increases defects C) It delays the project D) It is not necessary Answer: A Explanation: Building quality from the beginning leads to fewer defects and lower costs.
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Question 7. Which role is responsible for the overall test strategy and management? A) Test Engineer B) Test Analyst C) Test Manager D) Developer Answer: C Explanation: The test manager oversees the test process, strategy, and team management. Question 8. What is the main responsibility of a Test Analyst? A) Writing code B) Executing and designing test cases C) Managing the project budget D) Approving releases Answer: B Explanation: Test Analysts primarily design and execute test cases. Question 9. Centralized test teams are best described as: A) Testers are embedded in development teams B) Testers form a separate, dedicated group C) There are no testers D) Testers report directly to customers Answer: B Explanation: In centralized structures, testers are in a separate unit serving multiple projects. Question 10. What is essential for an effective test environment? A) Latest hardware only B) Proper hardware, software, and test data C) Only test scripts D) No documentation Answer: B Explanation: Effective test environments require the right hardware, software, and representative data. Question 11. Which of the following is a benefit of test automation? A) Increases manual effort B) Reduces repetitive work C) Always finds more defects D) Makes documentation unnecessary Answer: B Explanation: Automation reduces repetitive manual tasks and speeds up regression testing. Question 12. What does a test management tool typically help with? A) Writing code B) Tracking test cases, defects, and progress C) Designing user interfaces D) Marketing Answer: B Explanation: Test management tools assist in organizing and tracking testing activities.
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Question 19. If a test project is off track, which activity should be performed? A) Test control B) More coding C) Ignore the issue D) Write more requirements Answer: A Explanation: Test control involves taking corrective actions to realign the project. Question 20. Which best defines a risk in software testing? A) A certain event with no impact B) An uncertain event that may negatively affect quality C) A bug D) A requirement Answer: B Explanation: A risk is any uncertain factor that could impact project or product quality. Question 21. Risk-based testing involves: A) Testing all areas equally B) Prioritizing testing based on risk impact and likelihood C) Ignoring risks D) Only testing UI Answer: B Explanation: Risk-based testing focuses on areas with higher risk and impact. Question 22. What is a risk mitigation plan? A) A list of all bugs B) A strategy to reduce the likelihood or impact of risks C) A user manual D) A release note Answer: B Explanation: Risk mitigation plans outline steps to reduce risks. Question 23. Who is responsible for identifying risks in a software project? A) Only developers B) Only testers C) All stakeholders D) Only customers Answer: C Explanation: Risk identification is a collaborative activity involving all stakeholders. Question 24. The “pesticide paradox” refers to: A) Using pesticides in software B) Repeatedly running the same tests eventually stops finding new bugs C) Testing only once D) Ignoring defects Answer: B Explanation: The pesticide paradox states that new tests are needed to find new bugs.
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Question 25. “Defects cluster together” means: A) Defects are evenly spread B) A small number of modules contain most defects C) There are no defects D) All modules are equally buggy Answer: B Explanation: Many defects often occur in a few specific areas of the software. Question 26. The “absence-of-errors” fallacy means: A) No errors exist, so the software is perfect B) Error-free software is always useful C) Software with no errors may still not meet user needs D) Errors are always visible Answer: C Explanation: Even if no errors are found, the software may not fulfill requirements. Question 27. Which of these is NOT a deliverable of test planning? A) Test plan document B) Test scripts C) Budget report D) Test schedule Answer: C Explanation: Budget reports are not a typical test planning deliverable. Question 28. When should testing activities ideally start? A) After development B) In the requirements phase C) Only during deployment D) After release Answer: B Explanation: Early testing helps catch defects sooner and saves costs. Question 29. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good test environment? A) Different from production B) Similar to production C) Unstable hardware D) Incomplete software Answer: B Explanation: The test environment should mirror production to uncover relevant issues. Question 30. Who uses defect tracking systems most frequently? A) Only developers B) Testers and developers C) Only managers D) Only end-users Answer: B Explanation: Both testers and developers use defect tracking to report and manage bugs.
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Question 37. The main focus of quality control (QC) is: A) Preventing defects B) Detecting defects in products C) Writing requirements D) Project management Answer: B Explanation: QC is aimed at detecting defects in finished products. Question 38. The main focus of quality assurance (QA) is: A) Detecting defects B) Preventing defects through effective processes C) Only writing code D) Testing only Answer: B Explanation: QA aims to prevent defects by ensuring proper processes are followed. Question 39. Which software development model emphasizes early defect detection? A) Waterfall B) V-Model C) Build-and-fix D) Spiral Answer: B Explanation: The V-Model integrates testing early at each development stage. Question 40. Debugging is performed by: A) Testers B) Developers C) Customers D) Users Answer: B Explanation: Developers typically handle debugging after defects are reported. Question 41. Which is a key component of a test plan? A) Marketing strategy B) Test objectives and scope C) Product pricing D) Sales targets Answer: B Explanation: The test plan defines objectives, scope, and approach. Question 42. Which of the following is NOT a typical test deliverable? A) Test summary report B) Test plan C) Source code D) Defect report Answer: C Explanation: Source code is not a test deliverable; it is produced by developers.
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Question 43. A test case should include: A) Only input data B) Input data, execution steps, and expected results C) Only expected results D) Only test scripts Answer: B Explanation: Test cases must specify how to test and what the expected outcome is. Question 44. In risk management, “impact” refers to: A) Likelihood of occurrence B) Consequences if the risk occurs C) Number of testers D) Project duration Answer: B Explanation: Impact is the effect or damage caused if a risk materializes. Question 45. Which technique helps prioritize tests based on business impact? A) Risk-based testing B) Random testing C) Ad-hoc testing D) Pair programming Answer: A Explanation: Risk-based testing aligns testing efforts with business priorities. Question 46. A test environment must be: A) Available only to developers B) Isolated from production data C) Identical to production in all aspects D) Suitable and controlled for testing Answer: D Explanation: Test environments should be controlled and suitable, not necessarily identical. Question 47. What is the main advantage of early testing? A) Increased project cost B) Early detection of defects, reducing rework C) Delayed releases D) More documentation Answer: B Explanation: Early testing finds defects sooner, saving time and cost. Question 48. Test deliverables are typically handed over at which phase? A) Planning B) Execution C) Closure D) Requirement gathering Answer: C Explanation: Test deliverables are finalized and handed over during test closure.
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Question 55. Which activity is part of test closure? A) Writing requirements B) Archiving testware and reports C) Developing code D) Creating wireframes Answer: B Explanation: Test closure includes archiving documents and finalizing reports. Question 56. Who is primarily responsible for reviewing test cases? A) End-users B) Testers and test leads C) Database administrators D) Sales team Answer: B Explanation: Testers and leads ensure that test cases are correct and complete. Question 57. Which of the following is NOT a type of test environment? A) Development environment B) Production environment C) Test environment D) Sales environment Answer: D Explanation: Sales environments are not related to testing. Question 58. Which statement about exhaustive testing is true? A) It is always possible B) It is impractical and impossible for most systems C) It guarantees finding all defects D) It is mandatory Answer: B Explanation: Exhaustive testing is usually not feasible due to software complexity. Question 59. The purpose of regression testing is to: A) Test new functionality only B) Ensure unchanged areas still work after changes C) Only test new defects D) Test documentation Answer: B Explanation: Regression testing checks that existing features are unaffected by recent changes. Question 60. In which phase is defect tracking most crucial? A) Requirement gathering B) Test execution C) Test closure D) Project initiation Answer: B Explanation: Defect management is critical during test execution.
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Question 61. Static testing includes: A) Test execution B) Reviewing code, documents, and requirements without execution C) Running test scripts D) Deploying software Answer: B Explanation: Static testing involves inspection and reviews, not execution. Question 62. The main purpose of a test case is to: A) Document requirements B) Specify inputs, actions, and expected results for a test C) List project risks D) Create budgets Answer: B Explanation: Test cases define how and what to test to validate functionality. Question 63. Which of the following is an example of a preventative measure in quality assurance? A) Fixing defects B) Training developers in coding standards C) Writing test scripts D) Reporting bugs Answer: B Explanation: Training is a preventative QA activity to avoid introducing defects. Question 64. Which is NOT a risk mitigation technique? A) Avoidance B) Transfer C) Ignoring the risk D) Reduction Answer: C Explanation: Ignoring risks does not mitigate them. Question 65. What is the primary purpose of a defect report? A) To advertise the software B) To document and communicate details about a defect C) To design test cases D) To list project milestones Answer: B Explanation: Defect reports inform the team about issues needing resolution. Question 66. What does “testware” refer to? A) Only test cases B) All artifacts produced during testing (cases, scripts, data, etc.) C) Only automation scripts D) Only test data Answer: B Explanation: Testware includes all items created and used in the testing process.
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Question 73. Which is a typical entry criterion for test execution? A) Requirements not complete B) Test environment is ready C) No resources available D) No test data Answer: B Explanation: Entry criteria ensure the environment and prerequisites are ready. Question 74. Which is a typical exit criterion for a test phase? A) All planned tests executed B) No test cases written C) No defects reported D) Requirements are incomplete Answer: A Explanation: Exit criteria often include executing all planned tests. Question 75. Which is NOT a typical metric for test progress monitoring? A) Number of tests executed B) Number of defects found C) Number of marketing emails sent D) Test case pass/fail rates Answer: C Explanation: Marketing emails are unrelated to test progress. Question 76. What is the purpose of “traceability” in testing? A) Trace defects to marketing plans B) Relate test cases to requirements C) Track sales targets D) Document design decisions Answer: B Explanation: Traceability ensures that requirements are covered by test cases. Question 77. Who defines the scope of testing activities? A) Developers only B) Test manager and stakeholders C) End-users only D) Database administrators Answer: B Explanation: The test manager defines scope in consultation with stakeholders. Question 78. What is a “test baseline”? A) The latest version of the code B) The approved set of test artifacts at a point in time C) The final product D) All defects Answer: B Explanation: A test baseline is a reference point for test artifacts.
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Question 79. Which of the following is a benefit of test reviews? A) Reduce defects by finding issues early B) Delay project schedules C) Reduce documentation D) Increase costs Answer: A Explanation: Reviews identify issues before execution, reducing defects. Question 80. Which is NOT a responsibility of a Test Manager? A) Assigning test roles and tasks B) Managing test schedules C) Writing all code D) Risk management Answer: C Explanation: Coding is not a test manager’s responsibility. Question 81. Which is the best reason to use risk-based testing? A) To test randomly B) To focus resources on the most critical functionality C) To ignore high-risk areas D) To test only UI Answer: B Explanation: Risk-based testing targets the highest value and risk points. Question 82. What is the output of the test closure phase? A) Test summary report B) Source code C) Marketing strategy D) Release notes Answer: A Explanation: The test summary report is a key closure deliverable. Question 83. What is “test estimation”? A) Guessing test costs B) Predicting effort, time, and resources needed for testing C) Setting deadlines without data D) Writing test scripts Answer: B Explanation: Estimation forecasts resources, time, and effort for testing. Question 84. Which metric best measures defect density? A) Number of users B) Number of defects per size (e.g., KLOC or function points) C) Total project cost D) Team size Answer: B Explanation: Defect density is expressed as defects per unit size.
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Question 91. Which is NOT a typical reason for test project failure? A) Poor planning B) Unclear objectives C) Adequate resources D) Lack of stakeholder involvement Answer: C Explanation: Adequate resources help ensure project success. Question 92. Why is stakeholder involvement important in testing? A) To get buy-in and ensure requirements are met B) To slow down testing C) To reduce quality D) To increase documentation Answer: A Explanation: Stakeholders help align testing with business needs. Question 93. What is “test prioritization”? A) Testing in random order B) Determining the order of test execution based on risk or value C) Writing fewer test cases D) Only testing new features Answer: B Explanation: Prioritization ensures critical tests run first. Question 94. Which is NOT a typical risk response strategy? A) Accept B) Transfer C) Ignore D) Mitigate Answer: C Explanation: Ignoring risks is not a valid response. Question 95. The “test summary report” should include: A) Test results, metrics, and unresolved issues B) Only test cases C) Marketing analysis D) Design diagrams Answer: A Explanation: Summary reports capture results, metrics, and outstanding concerns. Question 96. What is “test planning”? A) Guessing what to test B) Systematically defining test activities, resources, and schedule C) Only writing scripts D) Ignoring requirements Answer: B Explanation: Planning organizes and defines all test activities and resources.
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Question 97. What is “test optimization”? A) Increasing test case count B) Maximizing test coverage with minimal effort C) Removing critical tests D) Ignoring test data Answer: B Explanation: Optimization aims for maximum coverage with efficient effort. Question 98. Which is a common test estimation technique? A) Wideband Delphi B) Random guessing C) Marketing analysis D) Code duplication Answer: A Explanation: Wideband Delphi is a collaborative estimation method. Question 99. What is “defect leakage”? A) All defects found in testing B) Defects missed in testing but found after release C) Number of test cases D) Project delays Answer: B Explanation: Defect leakage refers to undetected bugs that surface post-release. Question 100. Which is true about “defect clustering”? A) Defects are evenly distributed B) Most defects occur in a few modules C) Defects never occur in the same place D) All modules are equally risky Answer: B Explanation: Clustering means defects concentrate in certain areas. Question 101. What role does a “test lead” play? A) Manages the test team and coordinates activities B) Writes all test cases C) Handles only automation D) Sells the product Answer: A Explanation: Test leads manage testers and oversee execution. Question 102. Which is a key feature of defect tracking tools? A) Automated test execution B) Recording and tracking defect status and details C) Project budgeting D) UI design Answer: B Explanation: These tools manage defects from discovery to closure.
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Question 109. What does “test case maintenance” involve? A) Deleting all test cases B) Updating test cases as requirements or software change C) Writing code D) Marketing Answer: B Explanation: Maintenance keeps test cases relevant and accurate. Question 110. Which is a key risk of poor test data management? A) Increased test accuracy B) Inaccurate or unreliable test results C) Better documentation D) More defects found Answer: B Explanation: Poor data management leads to unreliable outcomes. Question 111. What does “test effort estimation” help with? A) Planning resources and schedule B) Writing requirements C) Coding D) Marketing Answer: A Explanation: Effort estimation helps resource and timeline planning. Question 112. Which tool helps with test automation? A) Selenium B) Word processor C) Spreadsheet D) Photo editor Answer: A Explanation: Selenium is a popular automation testing tool. Question 113. What is a “test charter” in exploratory testing? A) A plan for manual test cases B) A mission statement guiding exploratory test sessions C) A coding standard D) A release note Answer: B Explanation: Test charters guide what to explore during exploratory sessions. Question 114. What is “test execution status”? A) Number of testers B) The current state of test case execution (e.g., pass, fail, blocked) C) Project cost D) Code quality Answer: B Explanation: Execution status shows test progress and outcomes.
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Question 115. Which is a disadvantage of manual testing? A) Flexible for exploratory tests B) Prone to human error and less repeatable C) Always faster than automation D) Needs no documentation Answer: B Explanation: Manual testing can be error-prone and hard to repeat consistently. Question 116. Which of the following best describes a test case ID? A) Unique identifier for each test case B) Test execution time C) Marketing code D) Requirement number Answer: A Explanation: Test case IDs uniquely identify each test case. Question 117. What is “test incident report”? A) Report for marketing B) Document describing deviations or problems during testing C) Coding standard D) User guide Answer: B Explanation: Incident reports log unexpected events or issues in testing. Question 118. Why is test documentation important? A) To confuse testers B) To provide repeatability and traceability C) To increase defects D) To reduce quality Answer: B Explanation: Documentation ensures tests can be repeated and traced. Question 119. What is a “test deliverable”? A) Any artifact produced during testing (plan, case, report, etc.) B) Only the source code C) Only test data D) Marketing material Answer: A Explanation: Deliverables are outputs of various test activities. Question 120. Which of the following is NOT a type of test execution result? A) Pass B) Fail C) Blocked D) Budgeted Answer: D Explanation: “Budgeted” is not a test result.
