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Question 1. What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system? A) Movement B) Digestion C) Transportation of blood D) Protection against infection Answer: C Explanation: The cardiovascular system circulates blood, delivering oxygen and nutrients throughout the body. Question 2. Which prefix indicates "slow" in medical terminology? A) Hyper- B) Brady- C) Tachy- D) Hypo- Answer: B Explanation: "Brady-" means slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate). Question 3. The suffix "-itis" refers to which condition? A) Enlargement B) Inflammation C) Tumor D) Condition of Answer: B Explanation: "-itis" denotes inflammation, such as in arthritis (joint inflammation).
Question 4. Which root word means "bone"? A) Hepat- B) Oste- C) Neur- D) Myo- Answer: B Explanation: "Oste-" refers to bone, as in osteoporosis. Question 5. What term describes the surgical removal of the gallbladder? A) Cholecystectomy B) Appendectomy C) Gastrectomy D) Nephrectomy Answer: A Explanation: "Cholecystectomy" is the removal of the gallbladder (cholecyst-). Question 6. Which body plane divides the body into right and left halves? A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Coronal Answer: A Explanation: The sagittal plane splits the body vertically into right and left sections. Question 7. What does the medical term "dermatology" refer to?
B) A root word with a vowel C) Only a root word D) A suffix with a vowel Answer: B Explanation: A combining form is a root word plus a vowel, aiding in word formation. Question 11. What is the medical term for abnormal heart rhythm? A) Arrhythmia B) Bradycardia C) Tachycardia D) Hypertension Answer: A Explanation: "Arrhythmia" is an irregular heartbeat. Question 12. Which suffix means "surgical repair"? A) - ectomy B) - plasty C) - otomy D) - scopy Answer: B Explanation: "-plasty" means surgical repair, as in rhinoplasty. Question 13. The term "nephrology" refers to the study of which organ? A) Liver B) Lungs
C) Kidneys D) Heart Answer: C Explanation: "Nephrology" is the study of kidneys (nephr-). Question 14. Which of the following is a body cavity that houses the lungs? A) Cranial cavity B) Thoracic cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Pelvic cavity Answer: B Explanation: The thoracic cavity contains the lungs and heart. Question 15. What does the prefix "hyper-" mean? A) Below normal B) Excessive C) Slow D) Fast Answer: B Explanation: "Hyper-" means excessive or above normal. Question 16. What does the term "osteoporosis" refer to? A) Bone inflammation B) Bone tumor C) Bone thinning
Answer: B Explanation: The musculoskeletal system supports the body and enables movement. Question 20. What does the root "cardi-" mean? A) Liver B) Brain C) Heart D) Skin Answer: C Explanation: "Cardi-" refers to the heart. Question 21. The medical record component “H&P” stands for: A) History and Progress B) History and Physical C) Health and Prognosis D) Hospitalization and Procedure Answer: B Explanation: "H&P" refers to History and Physical, a standard part of medical documentation. Question 22. What is the significance of the operative report in documentation? A) Details medication dosage B) Describes surgical procedure performed C) Lists patient allergies D) Records billing codes Answer: B
Explanation: The operative report documents details of the surgical procedure. Question 23. Which document summarizes the patient's hospital stay and outcomes? A) Progress notes B) Discharge summary C) Operative report D) Billing statement Answer: B Explanation: The discharge summary reviews the hospital stay and patient status at discharge. Question 24. What is a clerical error in healthcare documentation? A) Incorrect diagnosis B) Misspelled patient name C) Unnecessary procedure D) Upcoding Answer: B Explanation: Clerical errors include misspellings and transcription mistakes. Question 25. Upcoding in documentation refers to: A) Coding for a lower level of service than provided B) Assigning codes for more expensive services than delivered C) Omitting diagnosis codes D) Repeating codes Answer: B Explanation: Upcoding is using codes for higher-cost services to increase reimbursement.
Question 29. What is a benefit of electronic medical records (EMR)? A) Increased paper usage B) Enhanced data retrieval and billing accuracy C) Slower documentation D) Increased manual errors Answer: B Explanation: EMRs improve efficiency and accuracy in billing and recordkeeping. Question 30. HIPAA's Privacy Rule protects: A) Medical coding procedures B) Patient health information C) Physician credentials D) Medical device standards Answer: B Explanation: The Privacy Rule safeguards patients' personal health information. Question 31. Fraud in healthcare is best defined as: A) Honest coding mistake B) Intentional deception for financial gain C) Clinical error D) Documentation omission Answer: B Explanation: Fraud involves deliberate misrepresentation for benefit. Question 32. Which is considered abuse in healthcare billing?
A) Documentation omission B) Billing for unnecessary procedures C) Error correction D) Use of proper codes Answer: B Explanation: Abuse includes practices that result in unnecessary costs or services. Question 33. What is the penalty for intentional fraud under HIPAA? A) No penalty B) Civil fines and potential imprisonment C) Only verbal warning D) Loss of insurance coverage Answer: B Explanation: Fraud can result in hefty fines and imprisonment. Question 34. What distinguishes Medicare from Medicaid? A) Medicare is for low-income families B) Medicaid is for the elderly C) Medicare serves seniors and disabled; Medicaid serves low-income individuals D) Both are for the elderly only Answer: C Explanation: Medicare is for seniors/disabled, Medicaid is for low-income individuals. Question 35. What is an audit in healthcare coding? A) Medical procedure
C) Use alphabetic index first D) Code procedures first Answer: B Explanation: "Code first" means underlying condition is sequenced after specified code. Question 39. Excludes1 note in ICD- 10 - CM means: A) Both conditions can be coded together B) Codes are mutually exclusive C) Requires additional code D) None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Excludes1 indicates that two codes cannot be used together. Question 40. The Alphabetic Index in ICD- 10 - CM is used to: A) Find numeric codes B) Locate diagnoses by key terms C) Identify procedures D) List medications Answer: B Explanation: The Alphabetic Index helps locate diagnosis codes by terms. Question 41. What is the Tabular List in ICD- 10 - CM? A) List of modifiers B) Organized list of codes by chapter C) Medication chart
D) E/M guidelines Answer: B Explanation: The Tabular List presents codes in chapter order for reference. Question 42. 7th character extension in ICD- 10 - CM is used for: A) Procedures only B) Chronic conditions C) Injuries, external causes, and obstetric encounters D) Laboratory codes Answer: C Explanation: The 7th character tracks episode of care for injuries and pregnancy. Question 43. How are neoplasms coded in ICD- 10 - CM? A) Using the Neoplasm Table B) Using procedure codes only C) Alphabetical list of symptoms D) Only by location Answer: A Explanation: The Neoplasm Table guides code selection by tumor type and site. Question 44. When coding multiple diagnoses, what is crucial? A) Sequence codes by physician preference B) Follow official sequencing guidelines C) Ignore chronic conditions D) Use only the first code
Explanation: Infectious diseases have unique chapter-specific guidelines. Question 48. What are O codes in ICD- 10 - CM? A) Orthopedic codes B) Obstetric codes for pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium C) Oncology codes D) Outpatient codes Answer: B Explanation: O codes cover pregnancy and childbirth. Question 49. When coding mental disorders, what is essential? A) Use only symptom codes B) Follow chapter-specific guidelines for psychiatric conditions C) Ignore behavioral details D) Use Z codes exclusively Answer: B Explanation: Mental disorders require precise, chapter-specific coding. Question 50. Which codes represent external causes of morbidity? A) R codes B) V, W, X, Y codes C) S codes D) Z codes Answer: B Explanation: V, W, X, Y codes are assigned for external causes of injury/accident.
Question 51. What section of CPT covers office visits? A) Surgery B) Evaluation and Management (E/M) C) Radiology D) Pathology Answer: B Explanation: E/M includes codes for office and other patient visits. Question 52. CPT modifier - 25 is used to indicate: A) Bilateral procedure B) Separate, significant E/M service by the same physician on the same day C) Co-surgeon D) Discontinued procedure Answer: B Explanation: Modifier - 25 describes a distinct E/M service on the same day. Question 53. What is a global period in CPT coding? A) Duration insurance covers a patient B) Time frame including pre-, intra-, and postoperative care C) Time to submit a claim D) Days before surgery Answer: B Explanation: Global period includes all care related to a procedure.
A) Reduced service B) Distinct procedural service C) Repeat procedure D) Bilateral procedure Answer: B Explanation: Modifier - 59 identifies a procedure distinct from others performed. Question 58. What is the purpose of CPT modifiers? A) To create diagnosis codes B) To provide additional information about a procedure C) To bill insurance directly D) To indicate payment amount Answer: B Explanation: Modifiers clarify circumstances affecting procedure coding. Question 59. Which CPT code range is for anesthesia services? A) 10000- 19999 B) 20000- 29999 C) 00100- 01999 D) 70000- 79999 Answer: C Explanation: Anesthesia codes are in the 00100-01999 range. Question 60. The Medicine section of CPT covers: A) Surgical procedures only
B) Non-surgical therapeutic and diagnostic services C) Radiology D) Physician consultations Answer: B Explanation: Medicine section includes non-surgical procedures (e.g., immunizations). Question 61. E/M coding levels are determined by: A) Patient’s insurance plan B) Medical Decision Making (MDM) or time spent C) Patient age D) Type of medication prescribed Answer: B Explanation: E/M levels are based on MDM or time per 2021/2023 guidelines. Question 62. New patient is defined as: A) Patient seen within last 3 years B) Patient never seen before or not seen within 3 years C) Patient seen last year D) Patient seen in emergency department Answer: B Explanation: New patient is one not seen by provider/group in past three years. Question 63. Which E/M category applies to emergency department visits? A) Office visits B) Hospital inpatient
