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Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes a cognizable offence? A) An offence for which police may arrest without a warrant and start an investigation without a magistrate’s order. B) An offence that can only be investigated after a court summons. C) An offence punishable only by a fine. D) An offence that requires the victim’s written complaint before any police action. Answer: A Explanation: Cognizable offences empower police to arrest without a warrant and to initiate investigation without prior judicial approval. Question 2. The First Information Report (FIR) must be filed: A) Only when the complainant is a citizen of India. B) Within 24 hours of the occurrence of a cognizable offence. C) Only after a magistrate’s order. D) Only if the offence is non‑cognizable. Answer: B Explanation: Under the Code, an FIR for a cognizable offence must be recorded by the police as soon as possible, generally within 24 hours. Question 3. When a non‑cognizable offence is reported, the police are required to: A) Arrest the accused immediately. B) Issue a summons or a warrant after obtaining a magistrate’s order. C) Register an FIR and start investigation without permission. D) Dismiss the complaint. Answer: B
Practice Exam
Explanation: For non‑cognizable offences, police cannot arrest without a magistrate’s order; they may issue a summons or a warrant after the magistrate authorises investigation. Question 4. Which statement is true regarding a police‑issued summons? A) It can be issued only after a charge sheet is filed. B) It compels the accused to appear before the police for interrogation. C) It is equivalent to a warrant of arrest. D) It can be issued only by a magistrate. Answer: B Explanation: A summons is a legal notice directing a person to appear before the police for questioning; it does not amount to an arrest. Question 5. A bailable warrant of arrest differs from a non‑bailable warrant because: A) The accused can be released on bail only after the trial. B) The accused is entitled to bail as a matter of right. C) The police must obtain a court order before execution. D) It can be executed only after a police report. Answer: B Explanation: In bailable offences, the accused has a right to bail upon arrest, whereas non‑bailable offences leave bail to judicial discretion. Question 6. A proclamation for a person absconding is typically followed by: A) Immediate dismissal of the case. B) Attachment of the person’s movable and immovable property. C) Issuance of a death certificate. D) Automatic conviction.
Practice Exam
B) Produce the accused before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours. C) Release the accused immediately if they request a lawyer. D) Transfer the accused to another state. Answer: B Explanation: The Code requires that an arrested person be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours (excluding travel time). Question 10. Judicial review of police arrest powers primarily serves to: A. Increase police discretion. B. Ensure arrests are not arbitrary and comply with legal safeguards. C. Allow police to bypass magistrates. D. Permit indefinite detention without trial. Answer: B Explanation: Judicial review checks that police arrests adhere to statutory requirements and protect individual liberty. Question 11. Preventive police action is permissible when: A. The offence is already committed and the accused is in custody. B. There is credible information of a design to commit a cognizable offence. C. The victim files a civil suit. D. The accused is a minor. Answer: B Explanation: Police may take preventive action, including arrest, when they have reliable information of a design to commit a cognizable offence. Question 12. A search without a warrant is valid only when:
Practice Exam
A. The police have a written permission from the accused. B. The premises are open to the public, or there is consent, or exigent circumstances exist. C. The police wish to seize any item they suspect. D. The suspect is a foreign national. Answer: B Explanation: Searches without a warrant are allowed in specific situations such as consent, public places, or emergencies. Question 13. Which document records the details of items seized during a search? A. Charge sheet. B. Panchnama (seizure memo). C. FIR. D. Bail bond. Answer: B Explanation: The Panchnama is the official memorandum documenting the nature, quantity, and condition of seized property. Question 14. For a search to be considered valid, the police must: A. Obtain the accused’s signature on the search order. B. Provide a written report to the media. C. Document the grounds, have a warrant (if required), and allow an independent witness. D. Conduct the search only during daylight hours. Answer: C Explanation: Valid searches require proper grounds, a warrant when mandated, and the presence of an independent witness or occupant where possible.
Practice Exam
Question 18. Digital evidence seized from a computer is admissible if: A. It is presented without any forensic verification. B. It is authenticated by a qualified forensic expert and chain of custody is maintained. C. The accused admits its existence. D. It is stored on a public server. Answer: B Explanation: Admissibility of digital evidence requires proper forensic authentication and an unbroken chain of custody. Question 19. Custody of case property pending trial is governed by: A. The accused’s personal discretion. B. The police’s internal policy only. C. The court’s directions and the provisions of the Code relating to preservation of evidence. D. The victim’s wishes. Answer: C Explanation: The Code prescribes that case property be kept under court‑ordered custody to preserve its integrity for trial. Question 20. Restoration of possession of immovable property after seizure is: A. Automatic upon filing of the charge sheet. B. Dependent on a court order after the investigation ends. C. Not permitted under any circumstance. D. Allowed only if the owner pays a fee. Answer: B
Practice Exam
Explanation: The court may order restoration of immovable property once it is no longer needed as evidence. Question 21. In bail matters, a bailable offence means: A. Bail can be granted only after conviction. B. The accused has a right to be released on bail upon furnishing surety. C. Bail is never permissible. D. Bail is decided solely by the police. Answer: B Explanation: For bailable offences, the accused is entitled to bail as a matter of right upon meeting the stipulated conditions. Question 22. Which factor is NOT typically considered by a court when granting bail in a non‑bailable offence? A. Likelihood of the accused fleeing. B. Nature and seriousness of the offence. C. The accused’s personal wealth. D. Whether the accusation is likely to affect the trial’s fairness. Answer: C Explanation: While financial capacity may affect surety, the court’s primary considerations are flight risk, seriousness, and impact on trial. Question 23. A condition that may be imposed while granting bail includes: A. Mandatory attendance at a religious ceremony. B. Requirement to reside at a police‑approved address. C. Obligation to pay a fine before trial.
Practice Exam
C. The magistrate of the first class. D. The Supreme Court exclusively. Answer: B Explanation: Both High Courts and Sessions Courts have jurisdiction to entertain anticipatory bail applications. Question 27. A bond for appearance of a witness is: A. A monetary penalty imposed on the witness. B. A written undertaking to appear in court, often with a surety. C. A document that waives the witness’s right to counsel. D. A criminal charge against the witness. Answer: B Explanation: A bond is a legal pledge, usually with a surety, ensuring the witness’s presence at trial. Question 28. Forfeiture of a bail bond occurs when: A. The accused pays the court fee. B. The accused fails to appear for trial or violates bail conditions. C. The court decides to release the accused. D. The victim withdraws the complaint. Answer: B Explanation: Non‑compliance with bail conditions triggers forfeiture of the bond. Question 29. Cancellation of bail and subsequent arrest may happen because: A. The accused requests to be re‑arrested.
Practice Exam
B. The accused violates any condition attached to bail. C. The trial is delayed due to a public holiday. D. The court runs out of time. Answer: B Explanation: Breach of bail conditions empowers the court to cancel bail and order arrest. Question 30. The hierarchy of criminal courts in India places the Court of Sessions above the Judicial Magistrate in terms of: A. Territorial jurisdiction only. B. Original jurisdiction for serious offences and appellate jurisdiction over magistrate courts. C. Power to issue only non‑bailable warrants. D. Authority to conduct civil suits. Answer: B Explanation: The Court of Sessions has original jurisdiction over serious crimes and hears appeals from magistrate courts. Question 31. An appellate jurisdiction of a High Court includes: A. Only civil matters. B. Appeals from Sessions Courts and subordinate courts in criminal matters. C. Original trials for all offences. D. Only matters relating to constitutional law. Answer: B Explanation: High Courts have appellate jurisdiction over criminal decisions of lower courts, including Sessions Courts. Question 32. The general rule for the place of trial of an offence is:
Practice Exam
Question 35. A victim may be a private prosecutor in a criminal case when: A. The state refuses to prosecute and the victim obtains court permission. B. The victim is a minor. C. The offence is non‑cognizable. D. The victim is a foreign national. Answer: A Explanation: Under the Code, a victim may apply to be a private prosecutor if the public prosecutor declines to proceed. Question 36. The content of a charge sheet must include: A. Only the name of the accused. B. A concise statement of the offence, relevant facts, and the law applied. C. The judge’s personal opinion. D. The victim’s financial details. Answer: B Explanation: A charge sheet must clearly state the offence, facts, and applicable provisions to inform the accused of the case against them. Question 37. An error in the charge that does not affect the substantive accusation is: A. Grounds for automatic dismissal. B. Considered a curable irregularity that can be corrected. C. A reason to acquit the accused. D. Irrelevant to the trial. Answer: B Explanation: Non‑substantive errors in the charge can be rectified without invalidating the proceedings.
Practice Exam
Question 38. Joinder of charges is permissible when: A. The offences are unrelated and committed in different states. B. The offences are of the same kind or arise from the same act. C. The accused requests it. D. The court is overloaded. Answer: B Explanation: Joinder is allowed for offences of a similar nature or those arising from a single transaction to promote judicial efficiency. Question 39. In a committal proceeding before a Court of Session, the magistrate’s role is to: A. Pass the final sentence. B. Determine whether sufficient evidence exists to commit the accused for trial. C. Conduct a full trial. D. Issue a death warrant. Answer: B Explanation: The committal proceeding is a preliminary hearing to assess if the case merits trial in the higher court. Question 40. A warrant case instituted on a police report differs from one instituted on a summons because: A. The accused is always acquitted in a warrant case. B. The police report itself is the basis for initiating the prosecution, whereas a summons is a court order to appear. C. Warrant cases never involve bail.
Practice Exam
A. Ignoring the witness’s testimony. B. Video conferencing or by a medical certificate corroborating the statements. C. Using a fictional witness. D. Only through written statements without verification. Answer: B Explanation: The Code permits recording of evidence via video link or through medical certificates when a witness cannot physically appear. Question 44. Prior statements of a witness are admissible as evidence when: A. The witness refuses to testify in court. B. The prior statement is recorded in compliance with the law and the witness is unavailable or refuses to testify. C. The statement was made to a friend. D. The statement is hearsay. Answer: B Explanation: Prior statements are admissible if they meet statutory requirements and the witness is unavailable or refuses to testify. Question 45. Plea bargaining is permissible in India when: A. The offence is punishable with death. B. The law expressly authorises it, such as under the Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act for certain offences. C. The accused is a minor. D. The victim objects. Answer: B
Practice Exam
Explanation: Plea bargaining is allowed only where specific statutes provide for it, ensuring safeguards and voluntary consent. Question 46. A sentencing hearing must include: A. Only the prosecution’s argument. B. The accused’s right to be heard on the question of sentence before the court pronounces judgment. C. A public demonstration. D. A vote by the jury. Answer: B Explanation: The accused is entitled to be heard on sentencing, allowing them to make submissions before the court decides the punishment. Question 47. Execution of a death sentence in India requires: A. Immediate hanging after conviction. B. Confirmation by the High Court and the President’s sanction before the sentence is carried out. C. No further judicial review. D. A public referendum. Answer: B Explanation: Death sentences must be confirmed by the High Court and require the President’s approval before execution. Question 48. Suspension of a sentence may be ordered when: A. The accused is a foreign diplomat. B. The court deems it appropriate for reformative purposes, often for lesser offences.
Practice Exam
A. The defense counsel only. B. Any lower court when it feels the legal question requires higher authority. C. The President of India. D. The police commissioner. Answer: B Explanation: Lower courts may refer questions of law to the High Court for authoritative interpretation. Question 52. Review of a judgment is available: A. In every case, automatically. B. Only when a specific provision in the statute allows it, such as under Section 362 of the Code. C. Only for civil matters. D. Only after a Supreme Court order. Answer: B Explanation: Review is a limited remedy provided by statute for correcting errors apparent on the face of the record. Question 53. An order for maintenance under the Code may be passed for: A. Only the wife of the accused. B. The wife, children, and parents of a convicted person, as per the provisions of the law. C. Only the victim’s family. D. Any neighbor of the accused. Answer: B Explanation: Maintenance orders aim to support the legitimate dependents of the convicted individual.
Practice Exam
Question 54. Enforcement of a maintenance order is carried out by: A. The police without any court order. B. The court through execution proceedings, which may include attachment of property. C. The victim personally. D. The Ministry of Finance. Answer: B Explanation: Courts enforce maintenance orders using execution mechanisms, such as attachment of property or garnishment of wages. Question 55. The High Court may transfer a criminal case to another jurisdiction primarily to: A. Increase the number of judges. B. Ensure a fair trial or for the convenience of parties and witnesses. C. Avoid media coverage. D. Reduce the sentence. Answer: B Explanation: Transfer powers are exercised to secure impartiality and convenience, not to influence outcomes. Question 56. Grounds for transferring a case do NOT include: A. The presence of a bias in the original court. B. The convenience of the parties. C. The desire to delay the trial. D. Public convenience. Answer: C
