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Exam Guide
Question 1. Which DevOps principle emphasizes creating fast feedback loops from production back to development? A) Flow B) Feedback C) Continual Learning D) Automation Answer: B Explanation: The Feedback principle focuses on rapid, continuous feedback from the system to developers, enabling quick detection and correction of issues. Question 2. In a Shift‑Left testing strategy, which activity is performed earliest in the software lifecycle? A) Load testing in production B) Security scanning during code commit C) UI regression testing after release D) Performance monitoring post‑deployment Answer: B Explanation: Shift‑Left moves testing activities, such as security scans, earlier—often at the code commit stage—to catch defects before they propagate. Question 3. What does an SLI (Service Level Indicator) represent in a quality engineering context? A) The contractual penalty for downtime B) A measurable metric that reflects service performance C) The target value agreed upon with customers D) The total number of incidents per month Answer: B
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Explanation: An SLI is a quantitative metric (e.g., latency, error rate) used to assess whether a service meets its SLO. Question 4. Which Git branching model encourages a single long‑living branch for production and short‑lived feature branches? A) GitFlow B) Trunk‑Based Development C) Feature‑Toggle Branching D) Release‑Branch Model Answer: B Explanation: Trunk‑Based Development uses a main trunk (often master/main) for production, with developers creating short‑lived branches for features or fixes. Question 5. In a CI pipeline, which stage should run static code analysis? A) After artifact storage B) Before unit tests C) After deployment to staging D) During post‑deployment monitoring Answer: B Explanation: Static analysis runs early, typically right after the code is built, to catch code smells before unit tests execute. Question 6. Which tool is primarily used for Software Composition Analysis (SCA) to detect vulnerable third‑party libraries? A) SonarQube B) Dependabot C) JUnit
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B) Database schema C) API request/response format D) Deployment scripts Answer: C Explanation: Contract testing validates that the API contract (request/response schema) between consumer and provider remains compatible. Question 10. Which of the following is a headless browser commonly used for UI automation? A) ChromeDriver with GUI B) Selenium Grid C) Playwright with Chromium headless mode D) Appium Answer: C Explanation: Playwright can run Chromium in headless mode, allowing UI tests without a visible browser window. Question 11. When testing mobile applications in a DevOps pipeline, which service provides real device testing on the cloud? A) Docker Hub B) Sauce Labs C) Jenkins D) Terraform Answer: B Explanation: Sauce Labs offers cloud‑based access to real mobile devices for automated testing.
Exam Guide
Question 12. A quality gate that fails a build if code coverage drops below 80% is an example of: A) Performance testing B) Security scanning C) Automated go/no‑go criteria D) Manual QA sign‑off Answer: C Explanation: Quality gates enforce automated thresholds (e.g., coverage) that determine whether the pipeline proceeds. Question 13. Which container orchestrator is most commonly used to spin up ephemeral test environments? A) Docker Compose B) Kubernetes C) Vagrant D) Ansible Answer: B Explanation: Kubernetes can quickly provision isolated pods for testing, enabling reproducible environments. Question 14. Parallel test execution primarily improves feedback loop time by: A) Reducing test flakiness B) Executing tests on multiple agents simultaneously C) Increasing code coverage automatically D) Enforcing stricter security policies Answer: B
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Explanation: Chaos Mesh injects faults (e.g., network latency, pod crashes) into Kubernetes clusters for resilience testing. Question 18. Auto‑scaling groups in AWS are validated during scalability testing to ensure: A) Zero downtime during code merges B) Correct provisioning of additional instances under load C) Proper SSL certificate rotation D) Accurate unit test coverage metrics Answer: B Explanation: Scalability testing verifies that auto‑scaling mechanisms correctly add or remove instances when traffic changes. Question 19. Which component of the ELK stack is responsible for log ingestion and transformation? A) Elasticsearch B) Logstash C) Kibana D) Beats Answer: B Explanation: Logstash collects, parses, and transforms logs before sending them to Elasticsearch. Question 20. Prometheus stores metrics in a time‑series database and scrapes data via: A) Push model using agents B) Pull model over HTTP endpoints
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C) Direct database queries D) File‑based imports Answer: B Explanation: Prometheus pulls metrics from instrumented endpoints at regular intervals. Question 21. Which of the following best describes the Three Ways in DevOps? A) Plan, Build, Deploy B) Code, Test, Release C) Flow, Feedback, Continual Learning D) Design, Develop, Maintain Answer: C Explanation: The Three Ways are Flow (value stream), Feedback (short loops), and Continual Learning (culture of improvement). Question 22. An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is primarily a: A) Technical metric used by developers B) Legal contract that defines service expectations and penalties C) Internal guideline for code style D) Tool for static analysis reporting Answer: B Explanation: An SLA is a formal agreement between a service provider and a customer outlining performance targets and remedies. Question 23. Which Git workflow requires a pull request to be merged only after a successful CI build? A) GitFlow without CI
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Question 26. Dependency‑check tools that generate a Bill of Materials (BOM) help in: A) Measuring test coverage B) Identifying which open‑source components are included and their known vulnerabilities C) Automating UI tests D) Deploying containers to Kubernetes Answer: B Explanation: A BOM lists all third‑party components, enabling vulnerability tracking and compliance. Question 27. Which level of the Test Automation Pyramid is most susceptible to flakiness due to UI changes? A) Unit tests B) Integration tests C) API tests D) UI/end‑to‑end tests Answer: D Explanation: UI tests interact with browsers and are prone to failures when the UI changes, making them flaky. Question 28. In BDD, the Then step is used to: A) Set up test data B) Execute the action under test C) Verify the expected outcome D) Clean up resources Answer: C Explanation: “Then” asserts the expected result after the action defined in “When”.
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Question 29. Pact is a popular tool for which type of testing? A) Load testing B) Contract testing between services C) UI testing D) Security scanning Answer: B Explanation: Pact enables consumer‑driven contract testing, ensuring provider APIs meet agreed contracts. Question 30. Which Selenium feature helps reduce test maintenance by abstracting page elements? A) Implicit waits B) Page Object Model C) Parallel execution D) RemoteWebDriver Answer: B Explanation: The Page Object Model encapsulates page elements and actions, making tests more maintainable. Question 31. For mobile automation, Appium communicates with devices using the WebDriver protocol. True or False? Answer: True Explanation: Appium extends the Selenium WebDriver protocol to automate native, hybrid, and mobile web apps.
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Explanation: Namespaces separate resources (pods, services) within a cluster, enabling isolated test environments. Question 35. In Jenkins, the “pipeline” syntax is defined using which language? A) XML B) Groovy DSL C) Python D) YAML Answer: B Explanation: Jenkins Pipelines are written in Groovy DSL, allowing declarative or scripted pipelines. Question 36. What is the primary purpose of think time in a JMeter test plan? A) To simulate realistic user pauses between actions B) To increase CPU usage of the test engine C) To delay test start until services are up D) To measure network latency only Answer: A Explanation: Think time mimics human behavior, making load tests more realistic. Question 37. In chaos engineering, the term “blast radius” refers to: A) The maximum load a system can handle B) The scope of impact caused by an injected fault C) The time it takes to recover from a failure D) The number of test cases executed in parallel Answer: B
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Explanation: Blast radius defines how far the effects of a fault propagate, helping to limit disruption. Question 38. Which metric is most appropriate for an SLI measuring API reliability? A) Average CPU usage B) 99th‑percentile response time C) Error rate (percentage of failed requests) D) Number of deployments per week Answer: C Explanation: Error rate directly quantifies reliability of an API service. Question 39. A service mesh (e.g., Istio) contributes to observability by: A) Providing a UI testing framework B) Injecting sidecar proxies that collect telemetry data C) Replacing CI pipelines D) Managing source code versioning Answer: B Explanation: Service meshes use sidecars to capture metrics, logs, and traces for each service call. Question 40. Which of the following is a time‑series database commonly used with Prometheus? A) MySQL B) InfluxDB C) MongoDB D) PostgreSQL
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C) No need for any branching strategy D) Enables separate release cycles per branch Answer: B Explanation: Frequent merges keep the main branch up‑to‑date, allowing CI to test integrated code continuously. Question 44. Which tool is designed for contract testing of GraphQL APIs? A) Postman B) Pact C) Dredd D) Apollo Federation Test Suite Answer: D Explanation: Apollo Federation provides utilities to test GraphQL schema contracts across services. Question 45. In a Kubernetes Helm chart, the values.yaml file is primarily used to: A) Define CI pipeline steps B) Store default configuration values for templated resources C) Write unit tests for charts D) Run static code analysis on containers Answer: B Explanation: values.yaml supplies configurable parameters that Helm templates substitute during deployment. Question 46. Which of the following is a non‑functional test type that should be included in a CI pipeline?
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A) Unit test of business logic B) UI regression test C) Load test using k D) Integration test of service APIs Answer: C Explanation: Load testing evaluates performance (a non‑functional attribute) and can be automated in CI. Question 47. What does the “Given‑When‑Then” structure promote in BDD? A) Separation of UI and backend code B) Clear mapping of business rules to automated steps C) Automatic generation of test data D) Parallel execution of test suites Answer: B Explanation: This structure makes scenarios readable and aligns them directly with business requirements. Question 48. Which of the following is a common cause of flaky UI tests? A) Deterministic unit logic B) Hard‑coded API responses C) Dynamic element IDs that change between runs D) Use of mock objects Answer: C Explanation: Changing element identifiers cause UI tests to locate elements inconsistently, leading to flakiness.
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Question 52. Which of the following is an infrastructure‑as‑code tool that can provision Docker containers for testing? A) Selenium B) Terraform C) JUnit D) SonarQube Answer: B Explanation: Terraform can define and create Docker containers as part of test environments. Question 53. In a microservices architecture, API gateway testing should focus on: A) Database schema migration B) Routing, authentication, and rate limiting behavior C) UI responsiveness on mobile devices D) Code style compliance Answer: B Explanation: API gateways handle request routing, security, and throttling, which must be validated. Question 54. Which of the following is a cloud‑native load testing tool that integrates well with CI pipelines? A. JMeter (standalone) B. k6 (scriptable, CI‑friendly) C. LoadRunner (desktop) D. SoapUI (manual) Answer: B Explanation: k6 offers a modern JavaScript DSL and CI integration via Docker or GitHub Actions.
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Question 55. What does “canary deployment” aim to achieve in a DevOps environment? A) Deploy to all users at once B) Release a new version to a small subset of users to monitor impact before full rollout C) Roll back automatically after each deployment D) Replace all existing infrastructure with new hardware Answer: B Explanation: Canary releases limit exposure, allowing early detection of issues. Question 56. In observability, tracing provides insight into: A. Disk usage statistics B. End‑to‑end request flow across services C. Static code analysis results D. Unit test pass/fail counts Answer: B Explanation: Distributed tracing follows a request through multiple services, revealing latency and bottlenecks. Question 57. Which of the following is a best practice for managing test data in CI pipelines? A) Hard‑code credentials in test scripts B) Use environment‑specific configuration files and secret managers C) Store large binary files in the repository D) Rely on manual data entry before each run Answer: B
