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Question 1. Which characteristic most distinguishes software projects from construction projects? A) Physical deliverable B) Fixed scope C) Intangibility D) Tangible resources Answer: C Explanation: Software is intangible, making requirements and progress harder to visualize than physical construction. Question 2. In a functional organization, who typically has the primary authority over project resources? A) Project Manager B) Functional Manager C) PMO Director D) Sponsor Answer: B Explanation: Functional managers control their department’s staff and resources, limiting the project manager’s authority. Question 3. Which SDLC model emphasizes risk analysis at each iteration? A) Waterfall
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B) Spiral C) V‑Model D) Incremental Answer: B Explanation: The Spiral model incorporates risk assessment in every cycle before proceeding. Question 4. The Project Charter should NOT include which of the following? A) High‑level scope B) Detailed work package descriptions C) Success criteria D) Authorized budget range Answer: B Explanation: Detailed work packages belong in the WBS, not the high‑level charter. Question 5. Which technique is best for capturing non‑functional requirements such as performance? A) Use‑case modeling B) Storyboarding C) Checklist analysis
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Explanation: Unmanaged stakeholder requests add work beyond the approved scope. Question 8. When creating a WBS dictionary, you should include: A) Only the WBS code B) Detailed description, responsible party, and deliverables C) Project charter text D) Risk register entries Answer: B Explanation: The dictionary clarifies each work package’s scope, owner, and deliverables. Question 9. Which estimating technique uses historical data from similar projects? A) Parametric estimating B) Bottom‑up estimating C) Expert judgment only D) Three‑point estimating Answer: A Explanation: Parametric estimating applies statistical relationships from past projects (e.g., lines of code).
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Question 10. In PERT three‑point estimating, the weighted average formula is: A) (O + P + M) / 3 B) (O + 4M + P) / 6 C) (O + 2M + P) / 4 D) (O + M) / 2 Answer: B Explanation: PERT calculates Expected Time = (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Question 11. Which activity dependency type is discretionary? A) Mandatory B) Hard logic C) Soft logic D) External Answer: C Explanation: Discretionary (soft) dependencies are defined by best practice, not by technical necessity. Question 12. The critical path in a network diagram is the: A) Path with the most resources
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D) AC – EV
Answer: A Explanation: CV = Earned Value minus Actual Cost; positive CV indicates under budget. Question 15. A fixed‑price contract is most appropriate when: A) Requirements are highly volatile B) Scope is well defined and stable C) The client wants to share risk D) The project uses time‑and‑material billing Answer: B Explanation: Fixed‑price contracts require clear, stable scope to set a firm price. Question 16. Cost of non‑conformance includes: A) Training expenses B) Rework and warranty claims C) Process improvement costs D) Quality audits Answer: B Explanation: Non‑conformance costs are incurred when defects are found, such as rework and warranty service.
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Question 17. Which testing level validates that the entire system meets business requirements? A) Unit testing B) Integration testing C) System testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: D Explanation: User Acceptance Testing (UAT) confirms the system satisfies end‑user needs. Question 18. Black‑box testing focuses on: A) Internal code structure B) External functionality and inputs/outputs C) Performance metrics only D) Database schema validation Answer: B Explanation: Black‑box testing examines behavior without regard to internal implementation. Question 19. Configuration Management baselines are established to:
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C) Historical incident logs only D) SWOT analysis by the project team Answer: B Explanation: Delphi gathers expert opinions anonymously over multiple rounds to reach consensus. Question 22. In qualitative risk analysis, a probability‑impact matrix is used to: A) Calculate monetary loss B) Prioritize risks based on severity C. Generate Monte Carlo simulations D. Determine schedule buffers Answer: B Explanation: The matrix maps probability against impact to rank risks qualitatively. Question 23. Monte Carlo simulation primarily provides: A. A single deterministic outcome B. A probability distribution of possible project durations C. A risk register template D. A stakeholder communication plan Answer: B
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Explanation: Monte Carlo runs many random scenarios to produce a distribution of possible results. Question 24. Which risk response strategy involves shifting the impact to a third party? A. Avoid B. Mitigate C. Transfer D. Accept Answer: C Explanation: Transfer moves the risk’s impact and/or ownership to another entity (e.g., insurance). Question 25. An opportunity that is “exploited” means the team will: A. Accept the chance without action B. Share the benefit with a partner C. Take steps to ensure it occurs D. Reduce its probability Answer: C Explanation: Exploit is a proactive response to guarantee an opportunity materializes.
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B. n + 1 C. n × (n‑1) / 2 D. 2ⁿ Answer: C Explanation: Channels = n(n‑1)/2, representing all possible pairwise interactions. Question 29. Which meeting technique helps keep Daily Scrums time‑boxed to 15 minutes? A. Round‑robin status updates B. Detailed problem‑solving sessions C. Presentation of slide decks D. Open‑ended discussion Answer: A Explanation: Round‑robin allows each member to answer three questions briefly, keeping the meeting short. Question 30. The Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for: A. Executing all change requests directly B. Approving, rejecting, or deferring change requests C. Managing stakeholder communications only D. Estimating project budget
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Answer: B Explanation: CCB reviews change requests and decides their fate based on impact analysis. Question 31. Which Agile principle stresses “working software over comprehensive documentation”? A. Responding to change over following a plan B. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation C. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools D. Working software over comprehensive documentation Answer: D Explanation: This is one of the four core values of the Agile Manifesto. Question 32. In Scrum, who is accountable for maximizing the value of the product? A. Scrum Master B. Development Team C. Product Owner D. Stakeholder Committee Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner defines and prioritizes the backlog to deliver maximum value.
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B. Visualize work item states over time C. Show stakeholder influence network D. Plot risk probability distribution Answer: B Explanation: CFD displays the number of items in each column (e.g., To Do, In Progress) across time. Question 36. Hybrid project management typically combines which two approaches? A. Agile and Six Sigma B. Waterfall for planning and Agile for execution C. PRINCE2 and ITIL D. Scrum and Kanban only Answer: B Explanation: Hybrids often use Waterfall’s upfront planning and Agile’s iterative delivery. Question 37. In SAFe (Scaled Agile Framework), the term “Program Increment” refers to: A. A single user story B. A 2‑4 week sprint C. A time‑boxed period (usually 8‑12 weeks) delivering integrated value
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D. The entire portfolio roadmap Answer: C Explanation: Program Increment (PI) synchronizes multiple Agile teams to deliver larger increments. Question 38. Which metric measures the amount of work a Scrum team completes per sprint? A. Burndown chart B. Velocity C. Lead time D. Cycle time Answer: B Explanation: Velocity is the sum of story points (or other units) finished in a sprint. Question 39. Which of the following is NOT a Scrum artifact? A. Product Backlog B. Sprint Backlog C. Increment D. Gantt chart Answer: D
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Question 42. A risk that has a high probability but low impact should be: A. Ignored B. Transferred C. Monitored and possibly mitigated D. Accepted without action Answer: C Explanation: Even low‑impact risks can affect schedule; monitoring ensures early response. Question 43. Which of the following is a quantitative risk analysis technique? A. Probability‑impact matrix B. Expert judgment C. Monte Carlo simulation D. SWOT analysis Answer: C Explanation: Monte Carlo provides numerical probability distributions for project outcomes. Question 44. The term “baseline” in project management refers to: A. The original project charter only
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B. The approved version of scope, schedule, and cost against which performance is measured C. The list of team members D. The risk register after mitigation Answer: B Explanation: Baselines are the approved plans used for variance analysis. Question 45. Which cost estimating method uses a unit cost multiplied by quantity of work items? A. Bottom‑up estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Three‑point estimating Answer: C Explanation: Parametric estimating applies a cost per unit (e.g., $/LOC) to the quantity. Question 46. In Earned Value Management, a CPI greater than 1 indicates: A. Over budget B. Under budget C. Schedule delay
