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CERTIFIED SURGICAL TECHNOLOGIST
PRACTICE EXAM #1|questions and
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During which of the following surgeries is a Meckel's diverticulum typically discovered? a. hysterectomy b. appendectomy c. prostatectomy d. varicocelectomy - correct answer-b. During an appendectomy, bowel is examined and can lead to the discovery of a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the following solutions can be used to disinfect endoscopic instruments? a. iodophors b. ethyl alcohol 70% c. phenolic compounds d. activated glutaraldehyde - correct answer-d. Activated glutaraldehyde is a high-level disinfectant widely used for disinfection of endoscopes. Which of the following is the administration route for thrombin? a. local infiltration b. topical application c. intravenous injection d. intramuscular injection - correct answer-b. Thrombin may be applied topically, in a solution or as a powder, but should never be introduced into a large blood vessel, because significant intravascular clotting and death may result. Gl0ve powder is normally wiped from the gloved hand, because it has the potential to cause a. dehiscence b. infections c. granulomas d. contamination - correct answer-c. Glove powder is a sterile foreign body whose reaction with tissue can cause granulomas.
Which of the following procedures is the removal of the entire orbital content, including the periosteum? a. recession b. resection c. evisceration d. exenteration - correct answer-d. Exenteration removes everything in the gloval orbit due to malignancies. Which of the following is MOST commonly used for wound closure in the presence of infection? a. stainless steel b. polyglactin- 910 c. plain gut d. silk - correct answer-a. Stainless steel suture is recommended for use in infected areas, because it is non-absorbable with indefinite tensile strength. When preparing the Sterrad sterilization system for use in the surgical area, which of the following outlets must be available? a. suction b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. electrical - correct answer-d. The Sterrad sterilization system requires electricity to operated. When can instrument counts be omitted? a. if the incision is too small for an instrument to become buried b. when the surgical technologist in the circulator role becomes too busy c. if instruments are needed in another operating room d. when the patient is receiving outpatient surgery - correct answer-a. The count can be deleted if significant risk for a retained item is unlikely and falls within hospital protocols. When assisting with the closure of a skin incision and operating the skin stapler, the surgical technologist in the scrub role is placing the staples through which two layers? a. cuticular and subcuticular b. subicular and subcutaneous c. subcuticular and subcutaneous
a. astigmatism b. detached retinas c. corneal scarring d. eye muscle contractures - correct answer-b. A sceral buckle procedure is used to repair a retinal detachment. Anterior and posterior knee stability is influenced by the dynamics of the a. cruciate ligaments b. joint capsule c. patellar tendon d. collateral ligaments - correct answer-a. Knee stability is influenced by the dynamics of the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments. During a craniotomy, removal of the bone flap is followed by a. incision of the dura mater b. incision of the galea aponeurotica c. application of the Raney clips d. suturing of the dura mater - correct answer-a. The dura mater is the first protective membranous layer over the brain which lies immediately beneath the bone (cranium). Which of the following suturing techniques features short lateral stitches that are taken beneath the epithelial layer of skin? a. purse-string b. traction c. mattress d. subcuticular - correct answer-d. A subcuticular stitch is a type of continuous stitch placed beneath the epidermis. A specimen obtained for frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intraoperatively, because it a. needs to be labeled by the circulator b. is sent to pathology immediately c. will contaminate the sterile field d. needs to be placed in formalin solution - correct answer-b. Special preparation and examination of the tissue can determine whether it is malignant, if nodes are involved, and if margins are clear of malignant
cells. Sending a frozen section will give the physician an immediate diagnosis and will be able to treat the patient correctly. In a sterilized package, a chemical indicator is used to a. show that moisture entered the package b. guarantee the sterility of the package c. verify that the package was properly wrapped d. confirm that the package was exposed to sterilization - correct answer-d. A chemical indicator verifies exposure to a sterilization process, but does not ensure sterility of the package. Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true? a. two accepted methods of surgical scrubbing are the timed method and the counted brush-stroke method b. a vigorous 5-minute scrub with a reliable agent may be as effective as a 10-minute scrub done with less mechanical action c. prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts d. when gloves are removed at the end of a surgical procedure, the hands are contaminated and should be immediately washed - correct answer-c. The hand scrub is done to decrease the number of microorganisms to an irreducible minimum and prolonging the surgical scrub will NOT decrease the microbe count beyond that. It is NOT a sterile procedure as skin cannot be sterilized. Which of the following is the best sequence for cleaning the operating room after placement of the dressings? a. remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table b. remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to remove drapes from the patient, remove instruments and supplies from the back table c. remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to remove drapes from patient, remove gloves and don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table d. remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to clean back table - correct answer-a. PPE (personal protective equipment) will protect surgical personnel from coming in contact with body fluids on the drapes. After the drapes are removed, the surgical technologist can safely remove the gown and gloves to complete clean-up with a pair of unsterile exam gloves. Note: the surgical technologist may be required to remain sterile until the patient leaves the room, in some circumstances. A Pereyra needle is used for which of the following types of surgery? a. hysterectomy b. prostatectomy
c. Depo-Medrol d. Lymphazurin - correct answer-b. Hypaque is a contract media. Which of the following is the most common complication of a strangulated hernia? a. shock b. necrosis c. infection d. hemorrhage - correct answer-b. The blood supply of the trapped sac becomes compromised and evetually the sac contents necrose. Which of the following structures is behind and below the base of the penis? a. scrotum b. seminal vesicles c. vas deferens d. prepuce - correct answer-a. The scrotum is located behind and below the base of the penis. In a steam autoclave set on pre-vacuum, the minimum temperature that must be reached is a. 200° b. 230° c. 250° d. 270° - correct answer-d. This temperature combined with the pressure in an autoclave is required to destroy microbial life. Hepatitis B is caused by a a. prion b. virus c. protozoan d. bacterium - correct answer-b. Hepatitis B is a generalized inflammation of the liver caused by one of several viral agents. If two basins are wrapped together for sterilizing, how should they be packaged? a. with one basin stacked inside the other and separated by impervious material b. with one basin on its side and the other upside down c. with one basin stacked inside the other and wrapped in a towel
d. with one basin stacked inside the other and separated by a towel - correct answer-d. Nested basins must be separated by a porous material, such as a towel, to allow the sterilizing agent to permeate and contact all surface areas of the basins. A resectoscope is used to resect the a. ovaries b. prostate c. vas deferens d. fallopian tubes - correct answer-b. A resectoscope is used to resect the prostate. Which of the following wounds is most likely in the inflammatory phase of wound healing? a. a Bankart repair, one week post procedure b. a laparotomy incision with a cicatrix c. an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of a finger, two weeks post procedure d. an abdominal incision, 20 minutes post-closure - correct answer-d. The inflammatory phase is the first phase of wound healing and begins within minutes of injury and lasts for 3 to 5 days. Cicatrix - the scar of a healed wound How must basins be positioned for sterilization in the autoclave? a. upside down b. right side up c. on their sides d. tightly stacked - correct answer-C. The autoclave should be loaded to facilitate removal of air and aid in the flow of the sterilizing agent. Placing basins on their sides helps remove air and exposes all surfaces to the sterilizing agent. Which of the following vasoconstrictors is used to prolong the action of local anesthetics? a. heparin sodium b. ergonovine (Ergotrate) c. lidocaine (Xylocaine) d. epinephrine - correct answer-d. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor used with a local anesthetic to prolong its action. Which of the following surgical procedures may be used to remove a carcinoma from the head of the pancreas?
d. sigmoid and rectum - correct answer-b. The ascending and transverse colon are portions of the large bowel and are found on the patient's right side. Retention sutures are advantageous when the patient is a. pediatric b. athletic c. thin d. obese - correct answer-d. Retention sutures are used to reduce strain on the suture line due to obesity. In order to remove a portion of the kidney, the surgeon must enter which of the following? a. synovial membrane b. Gerota's fascia c. Hesselbach's triangle d. suprapleural membrane - correct answer-b. Gerota's fascia is also known as renal fascia. It encloses the suprarenal glands and separates them from the kidney. A potential surgical complication of an inguinal herniorrhaphy is injury to the a. phrenic nerve b. sciatic nerve c. spermatic cord d. femoral artery - correct answer-c. In both direct and indirect inguinal herniorrhaphy in males, both the spermatic cord and the blood supply to the testes must be protected from injury. The diagnostic procedure that examines the interior of the respiratory structures is a. bronchoscopy b. culdoscopy c. esophagoscopy d. mediastinoscopy - correct answer-a. Bronchoscopy is the viewing of the tracheobronchial tree. culdo - GYN An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a disease is a a. fomite b. vector c. carrier
d. arthropod - correct answer-a. A fomite is an inanimate object or material. vector - carrier, an animal (usually an arthropod) carrier - harbors disease without visible symptoms arthropod - insect-carrier (mosquito) Which of the following is used to cross-clamp the intestine during a bowel resection? a. Allen b. Lahey c. Heaney d. Duval - correct answer-a. The Allen clamp is an intestinal clamp. Lahey - Thyroid Heaney - GYN Duval - Thoracic When utilizing a laparoscopic setup, potential hazards associated with the equipment include a. non-ionizing radiation b. nitrogen embolus c. pneumoperitoneum d. fiberoptic beam fire - correct answer-d. The intense fiberoptic beam can ignite the patient's drapes and cause fires. Therefore, cameras should be turned off when not in use, and are appropriately placed during procedures. When exposed to ionizing radiation, staff and patients should wear personal protective equipment containing a. silicone b. lead c. steel d. rubber - correct answer-b. Ionizing radiation may be stsopped by lead or thick concrete. Lead at least 0.5 mm thick is the most effective protection against gamma rays. Alpha and beta particles do not require shielding. Which of the following procedures requires an incision in the suprasternal notch? a. mediastinoscopy b. bronchoscopy
c. methylene blue d. Isovue - correct answer-a. Lugol's is a strong iodine solution used to identify neoplasms of the cervix in gynecological surgery. fluorescein - dye used in ophthalmology methylene blue - used for surface marking Isovue - contrast media used for radiographic procedures A T-tube drain may be used following a. a splenectomy b. a choledochotomy c. an appendectomy d. a herniorrhaphy - correct answer-b. A T-tube drain is used to irrigate and to demonstrate patency of the common bile duct. A T-tubes unique design fits into the common duct and facilitates drainage outside of the body. Which of the following positions is MOST often used for vaginal surgery? a. Kraske b. Lithotomy c. Supine d. Trendelenburg - correct answer-b. Lithotomy position is most often used for vaginal surgery. The feet are in stirrups or legs on braces, and the hips and knees are flexed allowing for maximum exposure of the surgical site. Which of the following is a heavy, curved, tapered needle? a. Mayo b. Keith c. Ferguson d. French-eye - correct answer-a. The Mayo is a heavy, curved, tapered needle used for general closure. Keith - is a straight needle Ferguson - is a fine, light needle French-eye - is a fine, light needle To revascularize the heart muscle of a patient with heart disease, a graft may be anastomosed between which of the following two vessels? a. internal mammary artery to affected coronary artery
b. subclavian artery to affected coronary artery c. internal mammary artery to aorta d. subclavian artery to aorta - correct answer-a. The internal mammary artery is the preferred vascular conduit to revascularize the myocardium. Which of the following is MOST likely to be in place while transferring a patient from the operating room table to the stretcher?
- IV tubing, 2. Fogarty catheter, 3. EKG wires, 4. Foley catheter a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 and 4 only - correct answer-b. 1 and 4 only Fogarty catheters are embolectomy catheters used to remove clots from vessels. EKG wires should be detached from the pads that are left in place before the patient is transferred. In metastatic cancer, tumors extend beyond the regional area by which of the following systems? a. skeletal b. lymphatic c. endocrine d. respiratory - correct answer-b. Malignant tumors can migrate from the primary focus to distant tissues via lymphatic or vascular systems. The other answers are not common modes of migration. When transferring an unconscious, postoperative adult patient from the operating room table to a bed, what is the minimum number of people required for safe transfer? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - correct answer-d. It takes 4 people minimally to transfer a patient: a person on each side, one at the head, and one at the feet. Additional personnel may be required for obese patients or those with special restrictions.
d. drying of secretions - correct answer-d. Atropine suppresses salivation, bronchial and gastric secretions; therefore, it has a drying effect. When evaluating the patient's skin for the preoperative prep, which of the following is considered a contaminated area? a. axilla b. toes c. body hair d. draining sinus - correct answer-d. A draining sinus is a contaminated area of the body. If the area is in the operating site, the surrounding area should be prepped first and the sinus should be prepped last. A chemical solution used to sterilize instruments by immersing them for at least 10 hours is a. activated glutaraldehyde b. sodium hypochlorite c. aqueous formaldehyde d. methyl phenol - correct answer-a. Glutaraldehyde is used for devices that can withstand complete immersion in liquid. To render an item sterile it must be immersed for 10 hours. If an x-ray cassette must be placed directly against the operative site, it must be a. sterilized using hydrogen peroxide plasma b. put in a sterile pillowcase c. sterilized using peracetic acid d. placed in a sterile cassette cover - correct answer-d. A sterile x-ray cassette is placed into a cover and can be placed directly against the operative site since sterility maintained. An x-ray cassette can not be sterilized. A pillowcase is not a standard surgical supply. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the care of rachetted instruments following surgery? a. instruments should be soaked in a saline solution b. instruments should be prepared for decontamination with curved tips up c. instruments should be opened for washing and sterilizing d. instruments should be sterilized in the sonic washer - correct answer-c. Rachetted instruments should be opened so all of the debris can be washed away. The oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells is a function of
a. albumin b. hemoglobin c. hematocrit d. prothrombin - correct answer-b. Hemoglobin is the iron containing pigment of red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. During a laminectomy, disk material is removed with a. an osteotome b. a Kerrison rongeur c. a pituitary rongeur d. a periosteal elevator - correct answer-c. A pituitary rongeur is used to remove herniated disk fragments. Osteotome - used for cutting through bone Kerrison - bone removal Periosteal - scraping periosteum off bone Which of the following patients is MOST likely to acquire a nosocomial infection? a. a healthy female patient who is 45 years of age b. a female patient in labor and delivery c. a healthy male patient who is 45 years of age d. a male patient who has diabetes - correct answer-d. Patients with diabetes are vulnerable to nosocomial infections, because they have suppressed immune systems, which predisposes them to acquiring a nosocomial infection. In which of the following positions should a patient be placed for a low anterior colon resection? a. dorsal recumbent b. prone c. lateral d. lithotomy - correct answer-d. The lithotomy position allows access to the sigmoid colon, perineum, anus, rectum, and vaginal urethra. A patient with HIV positive is having an abdominal procedure. Another patient who is HIV negative is having an orthopedic procedure. During and subsequent to the cases, the surgical technologist should take a. Standard Precautions for the HIV positive patient
intraluminal - (EEA) used for low anterior bowel resection purse-string - used only in open procedures Which of the following instruments is NOT used in otorhinolaryngology surgery? a. Rosen b. Baron c. Frazier d. Poole - correct answer-d. A Poole suction tip is NOT used in otorhinolaryngology procedures, because it is much too large. It is primarily used in abdominal procedures. Which of the following is the correct order, from the outermost to the innermost layer, of the tissues that compose the wall of the stomach and small intestine?
- submucosa, 2. muscularis, 3. serosa, 4. mucosa a. 1, 4, 2, 3 b. 3, 2, 1, 4 c. 1, 2, 4, 3 d. 3, 4, 2, 1 - correct answer-b. The outermost layer of the wall of the stomach and small intestine is the serosa, followed by the muscularis, submucosa, and the mucosa. When applying a pneumatic tourniquet preoperatively, which of the following items is used to force blood from an extremity? a. stockinette b. coban c. tourniquet cuff d. esmarch bandage - correct answer-d. An esmarch bandage is used to exsanguinate the extremity before the cuff is inflated. stockinette - covering for an extremity coban - dressing material tourniquet cuff - keeps the wound bloodless List in order the sequence of induction for general anesthesia:
- leads placed on the patient, 2. induction agent is given through an IV, 3. patient is prompted to breath 100% oxygen, 4. patient is intubated, 5. anesthetic gas agent is selected and applied a. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
b. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 c. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 d. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 - correct answer-c. 1. Leads are placed in order to monitor all cardiac activity during the induction of anesthesia. 3. The patient's blood oxygen saturation is raised as high as possible to sustain them during intubation. 2. The induction agent causes a loss of consciousness, and is associated with depressed reflexes, respiratory depression, and an inadequate airway. 4. The patient is secured and maintained after being depressed. 5. Anesthetic gas is selected and applied. In what position is a patient placed for a right nephrectomy? a. left lateral position b. right lateral position c. left lateral kidney position d. right lateral kidney position - correct answer-c. This is the correct side of the body. The flank would be elevated, and the kidney rest would be used. Which of the following wound classes is assigned to a perforated bowel? a. I b. II c. III d. IV - correct answer-c. Class III indicates that gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract has occurred. A circlage procedure is performed for which of the following conditions? a. Bartholin's cyst b. ectopic pregnancy c. incompetent cervix d. placenta previa - correct answer-c. A circlage procedure is performed to prevent spontaneous abortion and preterm delivery by placing a purse-string suture around the cervix. A Javid shunt is used for which of the following procedures? a. carotid endarterectomy b. femoral-popliteal bypass c. abdominal aneurysmectomy d. saphenous vein ligation - correct answer-a. A Javid shunt is utilized only for this procedure due to the small size of the shunt and the incision. What parts of the body are prepped for an ORIF of the olecranon process?
