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Cleet Study Guide Assessment Questions with Rationale Answers Latest
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Ethics is a code of _____ which guide our choices and actions and determine the purpose and course of our lives. - CORRECT ANSWER> values A code of conduct put forward by a society, some other group (religion), or by an individual regarding his/her own behavior is a definition of _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> morality Knowledge and abilities that a person gains throughout life is the definition of _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> skills Ethical drifts defined as a _____ of ethical behavior that occurs in individuals below their level of awareness. - CORRECT ANSWER> gradual erosion When leadership is _____, policy is not recognized. - CORRECT ANSWER> fragmented Ethical judgement can be undermined in otherwise _____ people. - CORRECT ANSWER> ethical Once _____ is/are greater than values, it becomes easier to make further concessions. - CORRECT ANSWER> self-interest The larger and greater the unthinking drift, the less the recognition of the slide down the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> slippery slope Ethics is about putting principles into action. Consistency between what we say we value and what our actions say we value is a matter of _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> integrity A person's state of readiness to make a "big" ethical decision is known as _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> ethical fitness A code of values which guides our choices and actions, and determines the purpose and course our lives is the definition of _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> ethics _____ is an element of ethical drift that occurs when officers develop an overwhelming sense of victimization and an intense resentment toward the supervisors and administrators who control their job role. - CORRECT ANSWER> a sense of entitlement
Ethical choice strategies are the following: the bell, the book, and the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> candle People with a vested interest in what you do (ethically) are called _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> stakeholders Law enforcement personnel commit critical unethical acts each day. _____ occur when officers rationalize and justify not doing things they are responsible for doing. - CORRECT ANSWER> acts of omission It is important to understand that _____ is as important as the act. - CORRECT ANSWER> motive _____ is the state of mind or spirit that enables one to face danger with self-possession, confidence, resolution, bravery, and valor. - CORRECT ANSWER> Courage Refusing gratuities, refusing to participate in a cover-up, refusing to participate in ethnic or gender- based humor are examples of what kind of courage? - CORRECT ANSWER> moral The ethical decision-making check list consists of the following: Is it legal? Is the decision balanced? and _____ - CORRECT ANSWER> How will I feel about myself after the decision? Ethics begins with good character. To develop character, we must build excellence, and building excellence begins with _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> myself "Cops don't snitch on other cops" can help foster the _____ dilemma that officers will likely face during their careers. - CORRECT ANSWER> loyalty vs. integrity _____ is the influence that one person exercises over a group of people by reason of the exemplary nature of their character. - CORRECT ANSWER> Moral ascendancy To perform as an "ethical" professional, you should _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> consider all relevant sides of the ethical problem Acts wherein officers violate department rules are _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> acts of commission-administrative
Which of the following is an exception to the general prohibition on carrying a firearm into schools, colleges, and government buildings? - CORRECT ANSWER> Both A and B. The reason that hearsay evidence is usually not admissible at trial is that ________. - CORRECT ANSWER> the use of hearsay evidence deprives the defendant of his or her right to cross examine witness You have probable cause that Tom Thompson went to Bob Barker's house last night and told Barker, "I just robbed the Quik Stop convenience store and the cops are after me. Please help me!" Your evidence is that Barker then replied, "Gracious, that's a felony! Because you're my buddy, I'll conceal or aid you so that you may avoid or escape from arrest, trial, conviction or punishment." Barker then drove Thompson out of town and rented a motel room so Thompson could lay low until the heat was off. What can Barker be charged with? - CORRECT ANSWER> Accessory to robbery. The legal doctrine which allows the employing law enforcement agency to be held liable for the acts of the employed peace officer is called ________. - CORRECT ANSWER> Respondeat Superior (vicarious liability) Ted and Sally go to Joe's Quik Stop to rob it. During the robbery, Sally unintentionally pulls the trigger of her gun and shoots Joe as he's getting the money out of the register. Joe dies as a result of his wound. Which of the statements below is correct? - CORRECT ANSWER> Both Ted and Sally are guilty of 1st Degree Felony Murder even though neither had intent to kill. An adult is lawfully in custody for the commission of a felony, and escapes. Under these facts, the escape may be charged as __________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> a felony For State crimes committed in "Indian Country" where both the victim and the offender are non- Indian, then _____ has exclusive jurisdiction. - CORRECT ANSWER> the State You wish to interrogate Sara Suspect who is in custody. Being a conscientious officer you know that you must advise her of her rights under the Miranda decision. Which of the below statements regarding her right to remain silent and her right to counsel is accurate? - CORRECT ANSWER> She can exercise the rights of both silence and to an attorney at any time. The hours a 'day time' Search Warrant can be served are __________. - CORRECT ANSWER> between the hours of 6:00 am and 10:00 pm inclusive
An officer has probable cause to believe that an occupied vehicle being driven on the street contains contraband or evidence of a crime. Which of the below statements is correct? - CORRECT ANSWER> The officer may search the vehicle as thorough as could be authorized by a magistrate and he/she may do so without a warrant under the Carroll Doctrine exception to the warrant requirement. ________ is the wrongful taking, and carrying away, of personal property in the possession of another, by means of force or fear. - CORRECT ANSWER> Robbery At about 1700 hours you answer a call at a home. You are informed by a child that when she arrived home from school about 1500 hours she observed her parents fighting and saw her father strike her mother in the head. You see that the mother is bleeding from the head. You also observe that the mother has fresh bruises around her eyes. The husband informs you that his wife - the child's mother - fell and injured herself. The wife is obviously afraid and will not confirm or deny the husband's account of how the injury occurred. Under Oklahoma's domestic abuse laws, you may ________. - CORRECT ANSWER> arrest the husband without a warrant since there is evidence of recent injury and it is less than 72 hours since the apparent domestic abuse The requirement that searches and seizures be "reasonable" is addressed in which Constitutional Amendment? - CORRECT ANSWER> 4th Amendment In the Elkins case, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the 'silver platter' doctrine violated the 4 th Amendment to the United States Constitution. What was the 'silver platter' doctrine? - CORRECT ANSWER> State peace officers obtaining evidence in violation of the U.S. Constitution and turning over the evidence to federal officers for use in federal trials. You have taken a child into protective custody and it appears the child is in need of emergency medical treatment. You've exercised due diligence but you are unable to locate a parent or guardian to authorize such treatment. What can you do? - CORRECT ANSWER> Authorize treatment if the physician says emergency medical treatment cannot be delayed. Sam was found guilty at the age of 16 of the crime of Burglary 1st Degree. Sam was certified to receive an adult sentence and imposition of judgment and sentence was deferred. Sam is now 17 and you have arrested Sam for assault and battery. Sam will be handled as a(n) ____. - CORRECT ANSWER> adult
Which organization has plenary power over Indian nations? - CORRECT ANSWER> Congress In 1914 the federal case of Weeks v. U.S. established the "exclusionary rule." That rule is that if a peace officer obtains evidence improperly the evidence ____. - CORRECT ANSWER> may not be used in court-because the Exclusionary Rule means that illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in court In a 42 U.S.C. ยง1983 civil rights lawsuit, the test used to determine whether the peace officer has qualified immunity from suit is ______. - CORRECT ANSWER> whether there was a constitutional violation and whether a reasonable officer would have known it was a constitutional violation In a criminal case ___________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> the State must prove the defendant's guilt beyond a reasonable doubt The elements of negligence are well settled. They are ________. - CORRECT ANSWER> duty, breach, causation, damages Among other things, the Fifth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution guarantees a defendant the right _______. - CORRECT ANSWER> not to have to testify if they do not wish to testify The detention, interdiction, or other disparate treatment of an individual solely on the basis of racial or ethnic status of the individual is _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> defined by Oklahoma statute as "racial profiling" and is prohibited by statute Oklahoma law provides that a local government may not enact any ordinance or policy which limits or prohibits a law enforcement officer from _____. - CORRECT ANSWER> providing information to, or receiving information from, federal officials on the immigration status of any person in the state A police officer prepared a search warrant and took it to a neutral, detached magistrate who issued the warrant. The officer properly served the search warrant and recovered evidence that the defendant was involved in drug trafficking. The defense, at trial, convinced the judge that the information in the search warrant affidavit was 'stale,' i.e., too old to rely on. What exception to the Exclusionary Rule is applicable under these facts? - CORRECT ANSWER> the "Good Faith Exception to the Exclusionary Rule"
What are the three primary factors that influence criminal jurisdiction in Indian Country? - CORRECT ANSWER> impact on sovereign status, Plenary Power of Congress, and U.S. Supreme Court interpretations of Indian Law A good rule of thumb concerning the use of force by law enforcement officers is to: __. - CORRECT ANSWER> use force only when it is necessary and then use reasonable force In a Court hearing, the 'Rule of Sequestration' requires what? - CORRECT ANSWER> that the witnesses not be in the courtroom when other witnesses are testifying and that a witness may not discuss his or her testimony with other witnesses The exception to the hearsay rule that allows the jury to hear a statement made while the declarant was still under the stress caused by the crime is commonly known as the ________ - CORRECT ANSWER> "Excited utterance" exception The purpose behind the exclusionary rule is ________. - CORRECT ANSWER> to deter peace officers from illegally seizing evidence, because the officers know the evidence will not be admissible In order to justify a "Terry frisk" or "pat down," an officer must ___________. - CORRECT ANSWER> be able to articulate facts which add up to reasonable suspicion that the person is armed and a danger to the officer and others It appears a suspect touched a surface in a crime scene, but the fingerprints are not readily visible. The officer should _________ and _________ to see if any prints are visible - CORRECT ANSWER> change their eye level or angle and illuminate from a different angle Any officer who is not a trained child forensic interviewer should consider conducting a __________________ in situations where they have no choice but to do an initial interview of a child sexual abuse victim - CORRECT ANSWER> minimal facts interview ________________ is the written, witnessed, unbroken record of all individuals who maintained control or had access to any physical evidence. - CORRECT ANSWER> chain of custody In 1981 the federal government regulated how many characters are in a vehicle identification number. How many characters are there? - CORRECT ANSWER> 17
An ____________ should be larger than is apparently necessary to protect the evidence. You should double the distance - CORRECT ANSWER> outer perimeter Human Trafficking is the exploitation by __________, __________, or __________ of vulnerable people for forced labor, domestic servitude, or commercial sex operations - CORRECT ANSWER> force, fraud, or coercion Identification marks placed on packages of evidence should include: the date and time; your initials; and ______________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> a case or incident number Upon preliminary investigation of any rape or forcible sodomy, it shall be the duty of the ___________ to inform the victim, or a responsible adult if the victim is a minor child or an incompetent person, of the twenty-four-hour statewide telephone communication service established by the office of the Attorney General - CORRECT ANSWER> interviewing officer As part of the Amber Alert review process, the Amber Plan Committee must make its final report to the ___________ - CORRECT ANSWER> Governor Finding and identifying a fingerprint at the scene proves ________________________ - CORRECT ANSWER> the offender was present The Oklahoma Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs (OBNDD) gets it statutory authority and Oklahoma's drug laws from Oklahoma State Statute Title _______. - CORRECT ANSWER> 63 Under which circumstance is a registered sex offender required to have the words "Sex Offender on their Oklahoma driver's license? - CORRECT ANSWER> all sex offenders that are classified as either aggravated or habitual offenders Oklahoma statutes require _________ who suspects a child has been either physically or sexually abused to promptly contact the Department of Human Services - CORRECT ANSWER> any individual The first evidence to be collected at a crime scene should be evidence _____________ - CORRECT ANSWER> most easily lost by time or elements
Firearms recovered under water should be _______________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> placed in an air-tight, unbreakable container and filled with water from which the firearm was recovered Statistics show the greatest number of emergency vehicle collisions occur ___________ - CORRECT ANSWER> at intersections Licensees are required to notify the Department of Public Safety of a change of address within _________ days - CORRECT ANSWER> 10 Evidence that there was a blood alcohol concentration of four one-hundredths of one percent (.04) for a person 21 years of age or older is prima facie evidence that the person was _________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> not under the influence of intoxicating liquor When an officer locates the driver of a hit-and-run vehicle, he should _______________. - CORRECT ANSWER> read the Miranda warning before interrogating Oklahoma law requires that the parent or guardian of a minor issued a citation be notified of the violation by delivering a copy of the complaint to them within _________ days - CORRECT ANSWER> 3 The case of State of Oklahoma vs. Woods gives law enforcement officers the right to withdraw and hold for evidence blood from a(n) __________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> unconscious person The operator of a motor vehicle which is involved in a collision meeting the dollar value or injury requirements of law is required to file a written report of such collision if settlement is not made within ________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> 6 months If no traffic violations are entered against one's driving record for three (3) consecutive years, how many points will be removed from that record? - CORRECT ANSWER> all points Physical evidence to be protected at a collision scene includes ____________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> all of the above Concerning the personal property of injured people, the officer should ______________. - CORRECT ANSWER> document and secure as department policy requires
Every law enforcement officer is required to prepare a written report of any collision resulting in personal injury or death or total property damage more than _____________. - CORRECT ANSWER> 500 Which of the following statements is true regarding speed restrictions? - CORRECT ANSWER> it is not lawful for a person to drive a vehicle at a speed greater than will permit them to bring it to a stop within the assured clear distance ahead it is not lawful for a person to drive a vehicle at a speed greater than will permit them to bring it to a stop within the assured clear distance ahead - CORRECT ANSWER> a driver on a county road, at an intersection with a state or federal highway, must yield to any vehicle which is close enough to constitute a hazard A person who drives a motor vehicle in a careless or wanton manner, without regard for the safety of persons or property, could be found guilty of _______________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> reckless driving When operating a vehicle at high speeds, peripheral vision _______________________? - CORRECT ANSWER> narrows Which of the following statements help describe the distractions that are characteristic of a law enforcement officer? - CORRECT ANSWER> all of the above The faster a vehicle travels, ______________ steering is needed to move the vehicle a specified distance. - CORRECT ANSWER> less Officers should secure all loose items inside the law enforcement vehicle to avoid ______. - CORRECT ANSWER> secondary impacts in case of collision The decision to initiate a pursuit is often easier than the decision to terminate a pursuit. - CORRECT ANSWER> true "Leave yourself an out" is the fourth step of the Smith Driving System. To accomplish this a driver should ___________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> have a space cushion on all four sides to avoid being boxed in "Detect everything to the front, sides, and rear of your vehicle. Double-checking intersections. Look out for pedestrians, children, and watching other drivers to aid in predicting their next move"
is categorized best by which step of the Smith Driving System? - CORRECT ANSWER> get the big picture There are three (3) main components of the psychological factors that contribute to law enforcement driving collisions; __________________, attentiveness, and willingness to improve.
- CORRECT ANSWER> emotions What is the leading cause of most serious law enforcement vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER> excessive speeds The proper procedure for performing a U-turn is as follows: Slow the vehicle; Pull to the extreme right of the lane or shoulder; Check for traffic by utilizing only the mirrors: Signal your intent to turn; Gradually accelerate after the turn is complete while checking for traffic. - CORRECT ANSWER> false The key for the law enforcement driver is to know the conditions under which the limits of control are reached thus knowing when the ability to control the vehicle will be lost. Which is why it is recommended the law enforcement driver only operate at _____ % to _____ % of their ability leaving a margin of safety. - CORRECT ANSWER> 70, 80 When using a vehicle with anti-lock brakes it is recommended to "pump" the pedal when the vehicle operator feels the brake pedal begin to "pulse". - CORRECT ANSWER> false Officers will often become _______________ and _______________ involved in a pursuit. This may cause them to take risks that would otherwise not be taken. - CORRECT ANSWER> emotionally, physically "A reasonably careful person performing similar duties and under similar circumstances would act in the same manner" best describes which of the following phrases? - CORRECT ANSWER> due regard The task of operating a law enforcement vehicle entails more than the average citizen will encounter while driving. Officers are constantly bombarded with information from various sources. While driving in the non-emergency mode, the law enforcement officer is required to __________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> all of the above
Which best describes "threshold braking"? - CORRECT ANSWER> applying the brakes to the point just prior to locking up Peace officers are immune from the seatbelt law. - CORRECT ANSWER> false The "Golden Rule" of pursuits can be described by which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER> when the pursuit becomes a hazard to the public, the pursuit should be terminated Which case law dealt with the unreasonable seizure by use of a roadblock? - CORRECT ANSWER> Brower v. Inyo County Which does not represent societal expectations regarding operating a law enforcement vehicle? - CORRECT ANSWER> all listed answers State statute dictates when an officer should initiate and terminate a pursuit. - CORRECT ANSWER> false In addition to the psychological factors contributing to law enforcement driving collisions, there are physiological factors as well. Which of the following is not a contributing physiological factor?
- CORRECT ANSWER> sycophantism Spinning the wheels ____________ friction thereby slowing the rate of acceleration. - CORRECT ANSWER> reduces The most important physical forces impacting the operator's ability to control a vehicle are friction, momentum, inertia, and ___________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> centrifugal force During any driving maneuver, it is desirable to completely lock the brakes to achieve maximum steering ability. - CORRECT ANSWER> false Tires on a police vehicle should be inflated according to the ______________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> maximum PSI indicated on the sidewall of the tire The correct line of travel through a true apex turn is outside-inside-outside. For a left turn, ______________________________________________________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> move out to right side of roadway; while in a straightaway, brake in a straight line; coast to the inside at the apex; then accelerate to the outside right edge The recommended minimum nighttime following distance is _______________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> 4 seconds
Agency policy may not be more restrictive, concerning pursuits, than state law. - CORRECT ANSWER> false During a pursuit, it is critical to keep the dispatcher and other officers informed of the conditions of the pursuit. Speeds, direction of travel, and traffic violations are all critical information that needs to be broadcast. Therefore, when in a pursuit it is best to transmit this information over the radio ___________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> when entering a straight stretch of roadway In the event of a stalled engine you should: Avoid braking; shift to neutral; restart engine; and shift to drive. - CORRECT ANSWER> true Concerning the movement of a vehicle; a vehicles operator can only control the ________ and direction of the vehicle. - CORRECT ANSWER> velocity Knowledge of and obedience to only Oklahoma statutes is all that is needed when making the decision to pursue. - CORRECT ANSWER> false Which of the following statements is true? - CORRECT ANSWER> officers cannot demand the right of way; only request it In attempting to resolve a rear wheel skid, the vehicle operator should _______________. - CORRECT ANSWER> remove foot from the accelerator and steer the vehicle in the direction of the skid Law enforcement officers may be held personally liable in court for their errors or omissions arising from law enforcement driving operations. - CORRECT ANSWER> true The simplest and most effective protection against possible injury or death of an officer during a motor vehicle collision is ____________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> a properly fastened seat belt in conjunction with an airbag When there is sufficient reason for pursuit or emergency response driving, minimizing the risk to officers and citizens are insignificant so long as we have increased the information processing and decision-making skills necessary to avoid potential collision situations - CORRECT ANSWER> false
The most appropriate treatment for stopping a severe extremity hemorrhage would be to apply _________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> a tourniquet When applying gauze (hemostatic dressing) you must do which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER> pack the gauze into the wound Gauze (hemostatic dressing) is used to control minor, superficial bleeding. - CORRECT ANSWER> false __________________ is a condition that may develop in a person with a sucking chest wound and difficulty breathing. - CORRECT ANSWER> tension pneumothorax Where is the most appropriate location when applying a tourniquet? - CORRECT ANSWER> as high as possible on an injured extremity The carotid artery is located ___________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> on the neck to the side of the windpipe The best method of applying gauze to the bleeding site is _________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> 3 minutes of direct pressure after packing the wound The radial artery is located ____________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> on the wrist above the thumb Which is not the best way to control bleeding? - CORRECT ANSWER> call 911 and wait for EMS The femoral artery is located _______________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> inside the upper leg You have held pressure with gauze for 3 minutes on a person with severe bleeding from the groin. You are unsuccessful at stopping the bleed. What do you do? - CORRECT ANSWER> apply a second gauze over the blood-soaked gauze Tension Pneumothorax is caused when ___________________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> air enters the chest causing the lungs to collapse Which should be cared for first? - CORRECT ANSWER> heavy bleeding from a thigh wound
The most common cause of preventable death is the failure to control severe extremity bleeding. - CORRECT ANSWER> true During an active shooter incident, you sustain a gunshot wound to the thigh and have heavy arterial bleeding. You initially controlled the bleeding with self-application of your tourniquet. You are informed by EMS they will not be able to reach you for up to 20 minutes. What is the best strategy for dealing with the tourniquet on your leg? - CORRECT ANSWER> leave the tourniquet in place The acronym "RADAR" stands for __________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> Radio Detecting and Ranging The term "frequency" is defined as the ________________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> number of wavelengths transmitted in one second The Oklahoma statute regarding the basic speed rule is _______________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> 47- 11 - 801 A The court case which says a properly trained officer needs to know how to set up, test and read radar not the technical understanding; is __________________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> Honeycutt vs Commonwealth For the radar operator to successfully complete the external tuning fork test; a stationary radar device must measure a turning fork's stamped speed _______________. - CORRECT ANSWER> within plus or minus 1 mile per hours If several vehicles are in range, radar will always pick out the speed of the vehicle that is __________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> none of the above The concept of tracking history evolved from which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER> case law At what speed do radio and light waves travel? - CORRECT ANSWER> speed of light When should you test the accuracy of your radar? - CORRECT ANSWER> beginning and end of each shift Radar/Lidar speed measuring devices detect __________________________. - CORRECT ANSWER> relative motion Which of the following may affect the range of radar? - CORRECT ANSWER> all of the above
