CMN 548 MODULE 1, 2 & 5 COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION TEST 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT, Exams of Clinical Psychology

CMN 548 MODULE 1, 2 & 5 COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION TEST 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 10/23/2025

FocusFile7
FocusFile7 🇺🇸

4

(8)

27K documents

1 / 53

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
CMN 548 MODULE 1, 2 & 5 COMPREHENSIVE
EXAMINATION TEST 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
failure of adolescent male to begin puberty by age 15. Answer:
Primary hypogonadism
Idiopathic, acquired hypogonadism with testosterone level less than
150ng/dL; delayed or absence of puberty AND an impaired sense of
SMELL. Answer: Kallmann Syndrome
Serum testosterone between 150-300ng/dL; also characteristically
obese, poor health, or aging. Answer: Partial male hypogonadotropic
hypogonadism
Normal testes during childhood that change in adolescence to fibrous
or solid. Answer: Klinefelter's Syndrome
75% of patients with this develop gynecomastia; also may experience
delayed speech, learning disabilities, and psychiatric disorders; physical
signs include thinning body hair, and gain of adipose tissue. Answer:
Klinefelter's Syndrome
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35

Partial preview of the text

Download CMN 548 MODULE 1, 2 & 5 COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION TEST 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT and more Exams Clinical Psychology in PDF only on Docsity!

CMN 548 MODULE 1, 2 & 5 COMPREHENSIVE

EXAMINATION TEST 2026 COMPLETE

QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

◉ failure of adolescent male to begin puberty by age 15. Answer: Primary hypogonadism ◉ Idiopathic, acquired hypogonadism with testosterone level less than 150ng/dL; delayed or absence of puberty AND an impaired sense of SMELL. Answer: Kallmann Syndrome ◉ Serum testosterone between 150-300ng/dL; also characteristically obese, poor health, or aging. Answer: Partial male hypogonadotropic hypogonadism ◉ Normal testes during childhood that change in adolescence to fibrous or solid. Answer: Klinefelter's Syndrome ◉ 75% of patients with this develop gynecomastia; also may experience delayed speech, learning disabilities, and psychiatric disorders; physical signs include thinning body hair, and gain of adipose tissue. Answer: Klinefelter's Syndrome

◉ Tests appropriate for investigating hypogonadism. Answer: Morning serum testosterone and TSH ◉ Serum testosterone is considered low when less than. Answer: 320ng/ml ◉ Weight loss will increase testosterone levels. T/F. Answer: True ◉ Testosterone therapy is useful for men with low serum testosterone combined with.. Answer: at least three symptoms of hypogonadism. ◉ Absence of one or both testes. Answer: Cryptorchism ◉ Study used to differentiate cryptorchism from retractile testes. Answer: MRI ◉ Common condition in preterm or low birth weight male babies. Answer: Cryptochism ◉ Presence of glandular breast tissue in a male. Answer: Gynecomastia ◉ Gynecomastia is never considered a normal finding in a male. T/F. Answer: False- up to 60% of boys have this at puberty, and it resolves spontaneously.

◉ Testicular cancer incidence is slightly greater in the left testicle. T/F. Answer: False ◉ Painless enlargement of the testicle, usually found by the patient. Answer: Testicular cancer ◉ Advanced testicular disease may manifest as. Answer: abdominal mass or supraclavicular adenopathy ◉ To determine if testicular mass is intra or extra-testicular, order a. Answer: Scrotal US ◉ If scrotal US indicates intra-testicular mass (cancer), next order. Answer: CT of chest, abdomen, and pelvis ◉ Survival rates for testicular cancer discovered and treated in early stages. Answer: 90-95% ◉ Men with HIV have the same risk as other men for acquiring testicular cancer. T/F. Answer: False-- They have higher risk ◉ Pubertal gynecomastia. Answer: resolves spontaneously within 12- 24 mo

◉ Hepatitis A. Answer: Fecal-oral transmission; also may be transmitted by sexual contact. ◉ Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis E. Answer: Vaccines available ◉ Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C. Answer: Transmission through blood, semen, contaminated needles or drug injection equipment, sexual contact, birth to infected mother. ◉ Hepatitis signs/symptoms (Includes types A, B, C, D, and E). Answer: Jaundice, dark urine, clay colored stool, fatigue, joint pain, N/V, anorexia, abdominal pain ◉ Hepatitis C. Answer: No vaccine available ◉ Hepatitis. Answer: Inflammation of the liver ◉ Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C. Answer: most common cause of cirrhosis and cancer related to liver inflammation. ◉ Hepatitis E. Answer: Transmission through contaminated food and/or water

◉ Recommended dose for Hepatitis A immune globulin. Answer: 0.02mL/Kg ◉ Hepatitis A symptoms may last. Answer: 2-6 mos ◉ Once infected with Hepatitis A, antibodies are continually produced to offer lifelong protection against recurrence. T/F. Answer: True ◉ At risk population for Hepatitis A. Answer: People who travel abroad, MSM, injectable or non-injectable illegal drugs, patients with clotting factor disorder, or patients who work with non-human primates. ◉ At risk population for Hepatitis B. Answer: Multiple sex partners, MSM, infected sex partners, babies born to infected mothers, residents and staff of facilities for the mentally disabled, travelers, or health care/public safety workers. ◉ This patient population is less likely to be symptomatic when infected with Hepatitis B. Answer: Immunocompromised patients and those less than 5yrs old; also patients with chronic disease may have no symptoms. ◉ Potential complications from chronic Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C. Answer: Cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma

◉ Incubation period of 60-150 days, average 90 days. Answer: Hepatitis B ◉ Primary prevention for Hepatitis B virus. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ Series of three vaccinations; usually given at birth, 3mo, and 6mo of age. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ Population for which post vaccination testing is recommended to ensure immunity to Hepatitis B virus. Answer: Healthcare and public safety workers, hemodialysis patients, HIV or immunocompromised, sex partners of patients with chronic infection. ◉ PEG-IFN-a (Pegintrom), entecavir (Baraclude), and tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (Viread). Answer: First line agents to treat Hepatitis B disease ◉ The population dramatically affected by Hepatitis C. Answer: Baby Boomers-- those born between 1945 and 1965 ◉ Hepatitis C antibody test is a covered screening for high risk patients, including those born between 1945-1965. T/F. Answer: True ◉ Unusual modes of transmission of Hepatitis C virus. Answer: Sharing a razor or toothbrush

◉ Prevalent in developing countries; transmitted through fecal oral route-- most commonly through drinking fecal contaminated water. Answer: Hepatitis E ◉ Populations with high risk of Hepatitis E. Answer: areas affected by natural disasters, refugee camps, or overcrowded conditions. ◉ Incubation period is from 15-60 days with an average of 40 days from exposure. Answer: Hepatitis E ◉ No vaccine available. Answer: Hepatitis E ◉ Any patient with hepatitis should have this screening. Answer: Alcohol screen ◉ Diagnosis of clotting factor disorder= recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A vaccine ◉ Diagnosis of chronic liver disease=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A and B vaccine ◉ Living with (or previously lived with) a person with Hepatitis B=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B testing

◉ Recent diagnosis of STD=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ Diabetes diagnosis=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ HIV/AIDS diagnosis=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine and testing for Hepatitis B and C ◉ MSM=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A and B vaccines and testing for Hepatitis B ◉ IV drug use (ever)=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A and B vaccines and testing for Hepatitis B and C ◉ Born between 1945 and 1965=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis C testing ◉ Blood transfusion or organ transplant prior to 1992=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis C testing ◉ Received clotting factor concentrate prior to 1987= recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis C testing

◉ Two main risk factors for BPH/prostate cancer. Answer: Genetic predisposition and race ◉ Decreased urinary flow and quality of the stream; urinary hesitancy; feeling as if the bladder is not completely empty; urge to strain with voiding; dribbling at the end of urination. Answer: S/S of BPH ◉ Need to urinate again within two hours. Answer: Double voiding ◉ Prostate size corresponds with the severity of the symptoms. T/F. Answer: False ◉ USPSTF recommends routine prostate screening. T/F. Answer: False ◉ Prazosin, doxazosin, and terazosin. Answer: alpha blockers; 1st line tx for BPH ◉ 5 - alpha-reductase inhibitor, Finasteride. Answer: Stops the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone which reduces the size of the prostate. ◉ PDE5 inhibitor that is the only FDA approved for tx of BPH. Answer: Tadalafil (Cialis)

◉ Saw Palmetto and Zinc. Answer: Used for symptom relief of BPH, but not supported by studies ◉ Most prostate cancers. Answer: Adenocarcinomas, cancer develops from gland cells ◉ A hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer related to inherited gene changes that increases a man's risk for a number of cancers, including prostate. Answer: Lynch syndrome ◉ PSA level that increases chance of prostate cancer to over 50%. Answer: > ◉ A PSA of this level indicates that prostate cancer is unlikely. Answer: </= ◉ Prostate cancers are graded according to this. Answer: Gleason score or sum ◉ Prostate cancer metastisis is often seen here first. Answer: Bone ◉ Prostate cancer treatment using small radioactive pellets or seeds, implanted directly into prostate gland. Answer: Brachytherapy

◉ An erection of the penis that lasts 4 hours or more; if ischemic is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate medical intervention. Answer: Priapism ◉ The loss of seminal emission related to endocrine disorders, androgen deficiency, surgery, or radiation therapy. Answer: Anejaculation ◉ Results from an obstruction or narrowing of the bladder neck due to radiation, transurethral resection of the prostate(TURP), radiation, or a s/e of meds (alpha blockers). Answer: Retrograde ejaculation ◉ Common condition of ejaculation that occurs with minimal stimulation; responds well to behavior modifications and counseling. Answer: Primary premature ejaculation ◉ Local anesthetic agents, SSRIs, TCAs, PDE5 inhibitors. Answer: Medications used to treat premature ejaculation ◉ PDE5 inhibitor combined with SSRI are recommended to address anxiety or depression that contributes to this problem. Answer: Premature ejaculation ◉ Pinolol combined with Paxil; Tramadol. Answer: Off label treatments for premature ejaculation

◉ Important history to note when addressing premature ejaculation issues. Answer: Hx of HTN, hyperlipidemia, CVD, PVD, CKD, endocrine disorders, depression, anxiety, or any other psychiatric hx. ◉ Testosterone, fasting glucose, fasting lipids, and prolactin levels; free testosterone and LH may also be indicated. Answer: Erectile dysfunction ◉ Testosterone replacement; helps with libido and ED; may be combined with PDE5 inhibitors. Answer: Treatment for hypogonadism ◉ PDE5 inhibitors; improve blood flow to the penis. Answer: Treatment of erectile dysfunction ◉ PDE5 inhibitors combined with alpha receptor blockers (used to treat BPH). Answer: Monitor for S/S of hypotension ◉ PDE5 inhibitors. Answer: Best taken in the AM on an empty stomach; may take up to 30 mins to take effect. ◉ PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated with... Answer: Nitrates ◉ Postage Stamp Test or NPT stamp test. Answer: Evaluates for presence of nocturnal erections; helps to determine if ED is physical or psychiatric issue.

◉ Lowers sperm count. Answer: Tobacco, alcohol, and marijuana ◉ Spermatogenesis takes... Answer: approximately 74 days ◉ Semen analysis. Answer: This should be evaluated on 2 different occasions and within one hour of collection. ◉ Prior to obtaining a semen sample, the patient should abstain from sex to allow for adequate specimen. How long of a period of abstinence is recommended?. Answer: 48-72 hours ◉ Absence of sperm. Answer: Azoospermia ◉ Less than 15 million sperm/ml. Answer: Oligozoospermia ◉ Sperm counts <10 million/ml should be referred to r/o what genetic abnormality?. Answer: Y chromosome microdeletion (Klienfelter's Syndrome) ◉ Kidney Stones. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract

◉ Medullary sponge kidney. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract ◉ Glomerulonephritis. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract ◉ Papillary necrosis. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract ◉ Bladder cancer. Answer: Differential diagnosis for GROSS hematuria in lower GU tract ◉ Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Answer: Differential didagnosis for MICROSCOPIC hematuria in lower GU tract ◉ Renal cell carcinoma. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract; 20% of cases ◉ Ureter or renal pelvis carcinoma. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract; 5% of cases ◉ Urinalysis with culture; treatment according to sensitivity; repeat urinalysis. Answer: appropriate labs to investigate hematuria