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CMN 548 MODULE 1, 2 & 5 COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION TEST 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
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◉ failure of adolescent male to begin puberty by age 15. Answer: Primary hypogonadism ◉ Idiopathic, acquired hypogonadism with testosterone level less than 150ng/dL; delayed or absence of puberty AND an impaired sense of SMELL. Answer: Kallmann Syndrome ◉ Serum testosterone between 150-300ng/dL; also characteristically obese, poor health, or aging. Answer: Partial male hypogonadotropic hypogonadism ◉ Normal testes during childhood that change in adolescence to fibrous or solid. Answer: Klinefelter's Syndrome ◉ 75% of patients with this develop gynecomastia; also may experience delayed speech, learning disabilities, and psychiatric disorders; physical signs include thinning body hair, and gain of adipose tissue. Answer: Klinefelter's Syndrome
◉ Tests appropriate for investigating hypogonadism. Answer: Morning serum testosterone and TSH ◉ Serum testosterone is considered low when less than. Answer: 320ng/ml ◉ Weight loss will increase testosterone levels. T/F. Answer: True ◉ Testosterone therapy is useful for men with low serum testosterone combined with.. Answer: at least three symptoms of hypogonadism. ◉ Absence of one or both testes. Answer: Cryptorchism ◉ Study used to differentiate cryptorchism from retractile testes. Answer: MRI ◉ Common condition in preterm or low birth weight male babies. Answer: Cryptochism ◉ Presence of glandular breast tissue in a male. Answer: Gynecomastia ◉ Gynecomastia is never considered a normal finding in a male. T/F. Answer: False- up to 60% of boys have this at puberty, and it resolves spontaneously.
◉ Testicular cancer incidence is slightly greater in the left testicle. T/F. Answer: False ◉ Painless enlargement of the testicle, usually found by the patient. Answer: Testicular cancer ◉ Advanced testicular disease may manifest as. Answer: abdominal mass or supraclavicular adenopathy ◉ To determine if testicular mass is intra or extra-testicular, order a. Answer: Scrotal US ◉ If scrotal US indicates intra-testicular mass (cancer), next order. Answer: CT of chest, abdomen, and pelvis ◉ Survival rates for testicular cancer discovered and treated in early stages. Answer: 90-95% ◉ Men with HIV have the same risk as other men for acquiring testicular cancer. T/F. Answer: False-- They have higher risk ◉ Pubertal gynecomastia. Answer: resolves spontaneously within 12- 24 mo
◉ Hepatitis A. Answer: Fecal-oral transmission; also may be transmitted by sexual contact. ◉ Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis E. Answer: Vaccines available ◉ Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C. Answer: Transmission through blood, semen, contaminated needles or drug injection equipment, sexual contact, birth to infected mother. ◉ Hepatitis signs/symptoms (Includes types A, B, C, D, and E). Answer: Jaundice, dark urine, clay colored stool, fatigue, joint pain, N/V, anorexia, abdominal pain ◉ Hepatitis C. Answer: No vaccine available ◉ Hepatitis. Answer: Inflammation of the liver ◉ Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C. Answer: most common cause of cirrhosis and cancer related to liver inflammation. ◉ Hepatitis E. Answer: Transmission through contaminated food and/or water
◉ Recommended dose for Hepatitis A immune globulin. Answer: 0.02mL/Kg ◉ Hepatitis A symptoms may last. Answer: 2-6 mos ◉ Once infected with Hepatitis A, antibodies are continually produced to offer lifelong protection against recurrence. T/F. Answer: True ◉ At risk population for Hepatitis A. Answer: People who travel abroad, MSM, injectable or non-injectable illegal drugs, patients with clotting factor disorder, or patients who work with non-human primates. ◉ At risk population for Hepatitis B. Answer: Multiple sex partners, MSM, infected sex partners, babies born to infected mothers, residents and staff of facilities for the mentally disabled, travelers, or health care/public safety workers. ◉ This patient population is less likely to be symptomatic when infected with Hepatitis B. Answer: Immunocompromised patients and those less than 5yrs old; also patients with chronic disease may have no symptoms. ◉ Potential complications from chronic Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C. Answer: Cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma
◉ Incubation period of 60-150 days, average 90 days. Answer: Hepatitis B ◉ Primary prevention for Hepatitis B virus. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ Series of three vaccinations; usually given at birth, 3mo, and 6mo of age. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ Population for which post vaccination testing is recommended to ensure immunity to Hepatitis B virus. Answer: Healthcare and public safety workers, hemodialysis patients, HIV or immunocompromised, sex partners of patients with chronic infection. ◉ PEG-IFN-a (Pegintrom), entecavir (Baraclude), and tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (Viread). Answer: First line agents to treat Hepatitis B disease ◉ The population dramatically affected by Hepatitis C. Answer: Baby Boomers-- those born between 1945 and 1965 ◉ Hepatitis C antibody test is a covered screening for high risk patients, including those born between 1945-1965. T/F. Answer: True ◉ Unusual modes of transmission of Hepatitis C virus. Answer: Sharing a razor or toothbrush
◉ Prevalent in developing countries; transmitted through fecal oral route-- most commonly through drinking fecal contaminated water. Answer: Hepatitis E ◉ Populations with high risk of Hepatitis E. Answer: areas affected by natural disasters, refugee camps, or overcrowded conditions. ◉ Incubation period is from 15-60 days with an average of 40 days from exposure. Answer: Hepatitis E ◉ No vaccine available. Answer: Hepatitis E ◉ Any patient with hepatitis should have this screening. Answer: Alcohol screen ◉ Diagnosis of clotting factor disorder= recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A vaccine ◉ Diagnosis of chronic liver disease=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A and B vaccine ◉ Living with (or previously lived with) a person with Hepatitis B=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B testing
◉ Recent diagnosis of STD=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ Diabetes diagnosis=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine ◉ HIV/AIDS diagnosis=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine and testing for Hepatitis B and C ◉ MSM=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A and B vaccines and testing for Hepatitis B ◉ IV drug use (ever)=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis A and B vaccines and testing for Hepatitis B and C ◉ Born between 1945 and 1965=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis C testing ◉ Blood transfusion or organ transplant prior to 1992=recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis C testing ◉ Received clotting factor concentrate prior to 1987= recommendation for. Answer: Hepatitis C testing
◉ Two main risk factors for BPH/prostate cancer. Answer: Genetic predisposition and race ◉ Decreased urinary flow and quality of the stream; urinary hesitancy; feeling as if the bladder is not completely empty; urge to strain with voiding; dribbling at the end of urination. Answer: S/S of BPH ◉ Need to urinate again within two hours. Answer: Double voiding ◉ Prostate size corresponds with the severity of the symptoms. T/F. Answer: False ◉ USPSTF recommends routine prostate screening. T/F. Answer: False ◉ Prazosin, doxazosin, and terazosin. Answer: alpha blockers; 1st line tx for BPH ◉ 5 - alpha-reductase inhibitor, Finasteride. Answer: Stops the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone which reduces the size of the prostate. ◉ PDE5 inhibitor that is the only FDA approved for tx of BPH. Answer: Tadalafil (Cialis)
◉ Saw Palmetto and Zinc. Answer: Used for symptom relief of BPH, but not supported by studies ◉ Most prostate cancers. Answer: Adenocarcinomas, cancer develops from gland cells ◉ A hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer related to inherited gene changes that increases a man's risk for a number of cancers, including prostate. Answer: Lynch syndrome ◉ PSA level that increases chance of prostate cancer to over 50%. Answer: > ◉ A PSA of this level indicates that prostate cancer is unlikely. Answer: </= ◉ Prostate cancers are graded according to this. Answer: Gleason score or sum ◉ Prostate cancer metastisis is often seen here first. Answer: Bone ◉ Prostate cancer treatment using small radioactive pellets or seeds, implanted directly into prostate gland. Answer: Brachytherapy
◉ An erection of the penis that lasts 4 hours or more; if ischemic is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate medical intervention. Answer: Priapism ◉ The loss of seminal emission related to endocrine disorders, androgen deficiency, surgery, or radiation therapy. Answer: Anejaculation ◉ Results from an obstruction or narrowing of the bladder neck due to radiation, transurethral resection of the prostate(TURP), radiation, or a s/e of meds (alpha blockers). Answer: Retrograde ejaculation ◉ Common condition of ejaculation that occurs with minimal stimulation; responds well to behavior modifications and counseling. Answer: Primary premature ejaculation ◉ Local anesthetic agents, SSRIs, TCAs, PDE5 inhibitors. Answer: Medications used to treat premature ejaculation ◉ PDE5 inhibitor combined with SSRI are recommended to address anxiety or depression that contributes to this problem. Answer: Premature ejaculation ◉ Pinolol combined with Paxil; Tramadol. Answer: Off label treatments for premature ejaculation
◉ Important history to note when addressing premature ejaculation issues. Answer: Hx of HTN, hyperlipidemia, CVD, PVD, CKD, endocrine disorders, depression, anxiety, or any other psychiatric hx. ◉ Testosterone, fasting glucose, fasting lipids, and prolactin levels; free testosterone and LH may also be indicated. Answer: Erectile dysfunction ◉ Testosterone replacement; helps with libido and ED; may be combined with PDE5 inhibitors. Answer: Treatment for hypogonadism ◉ PDE5 inhibitors; improve blood flow to the penis. Answer: Treatment of erectile dysfunction ◉ PDE5 inhibitors combined with alpha receptor blockers (used to treat BPH). Answer: Monitor for S/S of hypotension ◉ PDE5 inhibitors. Answer: Best taken in the AM on an empty stomach; may take up to 30 mins to take effect. ◉ PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated with... Answer: Nitrates ◉ Postage Stamp Test or NPT stamp test. Answer: Evaluates for presence of nocturnal erections; helps to determine if ED is physical or psychiatric issue.
◉ Lowers sperm count. Answer: Tobacco, alcohol, and marijuana ◉ Spermatogenesis takes... Answer: approximately 74 days ◉ Semen analysis. Answer: This should be evaluated on 2 different occasions and within one hour of collection. ◉ Prior to obtaining a semen sample, the patient should abstain from sex to allow for adequate specimen. How long of a period of abstinence is recommended?. Answer: 48-72 hours ◉ Absence of sperm. Answer: Azoospermia ◉ Less than 15 million sperm/ml. Answer: Oligozoospermia ◉ Sperm counts <10 million/ml should be referred to r/o what genetic abnormality?. Answer: Y chromosome microdeletion (Klienfelter's Syndrome) ◉ Kidney Stones. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract
◉ Medullary sponge kidney. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract ◉ Glomerulonephritis. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract ◉ Papillary necrosis. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract ◉ Bladder cancer. Answer: Differential diagnosis for GROSS hematuria in lower GU tract ◉ Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Answer: Differential didagnosis for MICROSCOPIC hematuria in lower GU tract ◉ Renal cell carcinoma. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract; 20% of cases ◉ Ureter or renal pelvis carcinoma. Answer: Differential diagnosis for hematuria, likely in upper GU tract; 5% of cases ◉ Urinalysis with culture; treatment according to sensitivity; repeat urinalysis. Answer: appropriate labs to investigate hematuria