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Question 1. Which of the following is the most critical reason for obtaining a thorough clinical history prior to a CT examination? A) To determine the patient's preferred appointment time B) To identify contraindications and tailor the protocol C) To estimate the cost of the procedure D) To assess the technologist’s workload Answer: B Explanation: Obtaining a comprehensive clinical history allows the CT technologist to identify potential contraindications (e.g., allergies, renal dysfunction) and customize the scan protocol to ensure patient safety and diagnostic efficacy. Question 2. During patient scheduling for a CT scan, which condition is a strict contraindication for intravenous iodinated contrast administration? A) Controlled hypertension B) History of mild seasonal allergies C) Previous severe reaction to iodinated contrast D) Age over 70 years Answer: C Explanation: A previous severe (e.g., anaphylactic) reaction to iodinated contrast is a strict contraindication unless premedication and risk assessment are performed; the other options are not absolute contraindications. Question 3. Which of the following is an essential component of effective patient education before a CT exam? A) Only describing the technical aspects of the scanner B) Explaining the risks, benefits, and procedure steps C) Reassuring the patient that no preparation is necessary D) Telling the patient to arrive two hours late Answer: B Explanation: Effective patient education includes a clear explanation of the procedure, its risks, benefits, and what to expect, which helps reduce anxiety and improve compliance.
Question 4. What is the main purpose of obtaining informed consent prior to a CT procedure? A) To allow the technologist to perform any procedure B) To protect the institution legally and ethically C) To speed up the workflow D) To increase reimbursement Answer: B Explanation: Informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement, ensuring the patient understands and agrees to the procedure, including its risks and alternatives. Question 5. Which immobilization technique is most appropriate for a pediatric patient undergoing a head CT to minimize motion? A) Asking the child to hold still B) Using a sandbag and Velcro straps C) Repositioning the patient repeatedly D) Ignoring minor movements Answer: B Explanation: Sandbags and Velcro straps are effective, non-invasive aids for immobilizing pediatric patients to minimize motion artifacts during imaging. Question 6. When monitoring a patient for level of consciousness during a CT scan, which scale is commonly used? A) Glasgow Coma Scale B) Apgar Score C) Wells Score D) Bishop Score Answer: A Explanation: The Glasgow Coma Scale is widely used to monitor and document a patient’s level of consciousness, especially in trauma and neurologic cases. Question 7. Which vital sign is most directly relevant to detecting an immediate adverse reaction to contrast media during a CT scan?
C) Increase the oxygen flow rate arbitrarily D) Disconnect the oxygen source Answer: B Explanation: Ensuring the oxygen tubing is free of kinks and has a continuous supply prevents hypoxia during the scan. Question 11. What precaution should be taken when a patient with a chest tube undergoes a CT scan? A) Clamp the chest tube before scanning B) Ensure the chest tube and drainage system remain below chest level and are not kinked C) Remove the chest tube before scanning D) Ignore the presence of the chest tube Answer: B Explanation: The chest tube and drainage system must remain below chest level to prevent backflow, and must not be kinked to maintain proper function. Question 12. Which of the following is a key consideration when imaging a patient with a urinary catheter? A) Clamp the catheter tubing B) Ensure the drainage bag is above bladder level C) Keep the drainage system below bladder level to prevent reflux D) Remove the catheter for the scan Answer: C Explanation: Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level prevents urinary reflux and infection. Question 13. Which laboratory value is most important to assess before administering intravenous iodinated contrast? A) Serum creatinine and estimated GFR B) Hemoglobin C) White blood cell count D) Platelet count
Answer: A Explanation: Serum creatinine and estimated GFR are critical in assessing renal function and risk for contrast-induced nephropathy. Question 14. A patient taking which medication should be specifically screened before receiving iodinated contrast? A) Metformin B) Aspirin C) Paracetamol D) Atorvastatin Answer: A Explanation: Metformin in combination with contrast can increase the risk for lactic acidosis in patients with compromised renal function. Question 15. When communicating with an anxious patient regarding a CT scan, what is the best approach? A) Use medical jargon for accuracy B) Provide concise, simple explanations and listen to concerns C) Avoid answering patient questions D) Rush the explanation to save time Answer: B Explanation: Clear, empathetic communication and addressing patient concerns help build trust and reduce anxiety. Question 16. What is the primary ergonomic risk for technologists when transferring patients to the CT table? A) Eye strain B) Back injury due to improper lifting techniques C) Finger laceration D) Radiation exposure Answer: B
Question 20. Which of the following must be considered when calculating contrast agent dosage for a CT scan? A) Patient’s insurance coverage B) Patient’s weight and renal function C) Patient’s eye color D) Patient’s fasting status only Answer: B Explanation: Contrast dosage is tailored to the patient's weight and renal function to optimize imaging and minimize risk. Question 21. Which medication is most commonly used as premedication for patients with a history of contrast allergy? A) Acetaminophen B) Prednisone and diphenhydramine C) Aspirin D) Epinephrine Answer: B Explanation: Steroids (e.g., prednisone) and antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) are used as premedication to reduce reaction risk. Question 22. Which of the following is a mild adverse reaction to intravenous iodinated contrast? A) Severe bronchospasm B) Urticaria (hives) C) Cardiac arrest D) Laryngeal edema Answer: B Explanation: Urticaria (hives) is a mild, often self-limited reaction to contrast; severe reactions include bronchospasm and cardiac arrest. Question 23. What is the initial management step for a moderate contrast reaction such as bronchospasm?
A) Immediate epinephrine administration B) Stop contrast infusion, administer oxygen and bronchodilators C) Ignore the symptoms D) Increase contrast flow rate Answer: B Explanation: Moderate reactions require stopping the infusion and providing supportive care such as oxygen and bronchodilators. Question 24. Which non-contrast medication may be given before cardiac CT to lower heart rate? A) Glucagon B) Beta-blocker C) Acetaminophen D) Diazepam Answer: B Explanation: Beta-blockers are administered to reduce heart rate, improving cardiac CT image quality. Question 25. When preparing to sedate a pediatric patient for a CT, which is essential? A) The child must be NPO (nothing by mouth) as per guidelines B) Sedation should be given with parental consent only C) No monitoring is necessary D) Sedate in a non-clinical area Answer: A Explanation: Fasting reduces risk of aspiration during sedation; monitoring and consent are also required. Question 26. What is the preferred venipuncture site for contrast injection in adults? A) Dorsal hand veins B) Antecubital fossa veins C) Veins of the lower limb
Explanation: Dual-head injectors allow for sequential injection of contrast and saline, improving vascular enhancement and reducing artifacts. Question 30. What does the “PSI” setting on a power injector regulate? A) Patient’s blood pressure B) Injection pressure limit C) Patient’s oxygen saturation D) Scan field of view Answer: B Explanation: PSI (pounds per square inch) sets the maximum pressure to prevent overpressurization and extravasation during injection. Question 31. Bolus tracking in CT angiography is used to: A) Reduce patient movement B) Time the scan to coincide with peak vessel enhancement C) Select scan field of view D) Adjust patient position Answer: B Explanation: Bolus tracking ensures that image acquisition is synchronized with optimal contrast enhancement of the vessels. Question 32. After a contrast-enhanced CT, which instruction should be given to most patients? A) Avoid drinking fluids B) Increase oral hydration to facilitate contrast excretion C) Fast for 24 hours D) Immediately resume heavy exercise Answer: B Explanation: Hydration after contrast administration helps the kidneys clear the agent, reducing nephrotoxicity risk.
Question 33. Which hand hygiene method is most effective before a sterile procedure like venipuncture? A) Alcohol-based hand rub B) Washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds C) Wiping hands with a towel D) Not necessary if gloves are worn Answer: B Explanation: Washing with soap and water is best for removing visible soil and pathogens prior to sterile procedures. Question 34. What is the minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) required when there is a risk of blood exposure during a CT procedure? A) Gloves only B) Gloves, gown, and face shield or mask C) No PPE required D) Cap only Answer: B Explanation: To prevent blood-borne pathogen exposure, gloves, gown, and face/eye protection are required. Question 35. What is the correct action for disposing of a used needle after venipuncture? A) Recap and discard in regular trash B) Discard immediately in an approved sharps container C) Place on the counter for cleaning staff D) Flush down the sink Answer: B Explanation: Used needles must be discarded directly into a sharps container to prevent needlestick injuries. Question 36. Which of the following is a key sign of anaphylaxis during a CT procedure?
D) Amoxicillin Answer: B Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Question 40. After any emergency event in the CT department, what is a required step? A) Ignore it unless the patient requests documentation B) Document the event, actions taken, and patient outcome in the medical record C) Wait until the next day to document D) Only tell the supervising technologist Answer: B Explanation: Full documentation is essential for legal, medical, and quality assurance purposes. Question 41. X-rays used in CT imaging are produced when: A) Electrons are accelerated to the anode and interact with its target material B) Protons collide with each other C) Light passes through a lens D) Magnetic fields are applied Answer: A Explanation: CT X-rays are produced by the collision of high-speed electrons with the anode target, typically tungsten. Question 42. The primary purpose of beam filtration in CT is to: A) Increase radiation dose to the patient B) Remove low-energy photons and reduce patient skin dose C) Create scatter D) Increase image noise Answer: B Explanation: Filtration removes low-energy photons that do not contribute to image formation, reducing unnecessary patient exposure.
Question 43. Which interaction is the basis for image contrast in CT? A) Compton scatter B) Photoelectric effect C) Nuclear fusion D) Pair production Answer: B Explanation: The photoelectric effect is largely responsible for the differential absorption that forms image contrast in CT. Question 44. In CT, a Hounsfield unit (HU) of 0 corresponds to: A) Bone B) Fat C) Water D) Air Answer: C Explanation: Water is assigned a CT number of 0 HU by definition. Question 45. The principle of ALARA in CT refers to: A) As Long As Radiology Authorizes B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable (radiation dose) C) Always Leave After Reporting D) Allowing Longer Acquisition Answer: B Explanation: ALARA guides technologists to use the minimum radiation necessary for diagnostic quality images. Question 46. Increasing which CT technical factor will most directly increase patient dose? A) Pitch
Answer: B Explanation: Dose modulation automatically adjusts mA to the patient’s size and tissue density, reducing unnecessary exposure. Question 50. Which CT acquisition method is most dose-efficient for chest imaging in children? A) Sequential scanning with lower kVp and mA B) Repeated helical scanning C) High-dose cardiac protocol D) Multi-phase scanning Answer: A Explanation: Sequential scanning with dose optimization parameters minimizes radiation exposure in pediatric patients. Question 51. In CT, the effective dose is measured in: A) Gray (Gy) B) Sievert (Sv) C) Becquerel (Bq) D) Coulomb/kg Answer: B Explanation: Effective dose, which accounts for tissue sensitivity, is measured in Sieverts (Sv). Question 52. What is the purpose of a lead apron in CT? A) To enhance image sharpness B) To shield staff and sometimes patients from scatter radiation C) To warm the patient D) To reduce noise Answer: B Explanation: Lead aprons provide protection from scatter X-rays for personnel and, in some cases, for radiosensitive patient organs.
Question 53. Bismuth shielding in CT is specifically used to: A) Shield the pelvis B) Reduce dose to radiosensitive organs such as the breast and thyroid C) Enhance contrast D) Increase scan speed Answer: B Explanation: Bismuth shields are placed over radiosensitive tissues to reduce their radiation exposure without significantly degrading image quality. Question 54. Which of the following is NOT a personnel radiation protection strategy? A) Standing as close as possible to the X-ray source B) Using shielding barriers C) Increasing distance from the source D) Minimizing time near the source Answer: A Explanation: Standing close increases exposure; the other options are core radiation safety strategies. Question 55. The CT Dose Index (CTDI) primarily measures: A) The effective dose to the whole body B) The dose delivered to a standard phantom per slice C) The amount of contrast administered D) Staff exposure Answer: B Explanation: CTDI quantifies the radiation dose for a single slice in a standard phantom, used for scanner dose comparison. Question 56. Dose Length Product (DLP) is calculated by multiplying: A) CTDI by scan length B) mA by scan time
Explanation: Proper grounding of electrical equipment reduces the risk of electrical shock. Question 60. What is a mechanical safety hazard unique to CT? A) Open flames B) Gantry and patient table movement during scanning C) Exposure to ultraviolet light D) Excessive noise Answer: B Explanation: The movement of the gantry and patient table can cause injury if safety precautions are not observed. Question 61. Which of the following is NOT required for fire safety in a CT suite? A) Accessible fire extinguishers B) Clear evacuation routes C) Open flames for sterilization D) Regular fire drills Answer: C Explanation: Open flames are a fire hazard and are strictly prohibited in CT areas. Question 62. When hazardous materials are used in the CT department, a technologist should: A) Ignore safety data sheets B) Follow the information in the material safety data sheets (MSDS) C) Mix chemicals without gloves D) Store chemicals in patient waiting areas Answer: B Explanation: MSDS provide essential information for safe handling, storage, and emergency management of hazardous materials. Question 63. Which is a recommended ergonomic practice for CT technologists?
A) Twisting while lifting patients B) Using adjustable height tables and proper posture C) Reaching overhead for heavy objects D) Standing on unstable platforms Answer: B Explanation: Adjustable tables and proper posture reduce the risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Question 64. The function of the X-ray tube’s rotating anode is to: A) Reduce heat build-up by distributing it over a larger surface area B) Increase noise C) Generate more scatter D) Shorten tube life Answer: A Explanation: The rotating anode spreads heat generated during X-ray production, allowing higher exposures and prolonging tube life. Question 65. What is the purpose of performing X-ray tube warm-up procedures? A) To increase patient dose B) To prevent tube damage by gradually heating the anode C) To calibrate the gantry D) To improve detector efficiency Answer: B Explanation: Gradual warm-up prevents damage due to thermal shock, extending tube life. Question 66. A bowtie filter in CT is used to: A) Shape the X-ray beam to compensate for body attenuation differences B) Increase scan time C) Reduce image contrast D) Create artifacts
