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drug for UC/Crohns - answer sulfasalazine pulmonary effects of CF - answer chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis osteoporosis affects what parts of bone? - answer (spongy and ) trabecular bone mass loss Imipramine is what type of drug? - answer TCA

SE: Tri-Cs convulsions coma cardiotox antichol effects- confusion in elderly; (acute glaucoma and orthostatic hypotension- block alpha1) loratidine vs ranitidine - answer loratidine: 2nd gen H1 blocker, doesnt cross BBB --> less sedating ranitidine: H2 receptor antagonist (like cimetidine) H1 think allergies H2 think gastric What organism presents as cells w RBCs inside - answer entaemoba histolytica which type of pneumothorax causes tracheal deviation to the contra side? - answer tension

intracerebral hemorrhage adjacent to a lesion that contains a tangle of numerous tortuous vessels - answer AVM arteriovenous malformation What is a cavernous hemangioma - answer benign tumor of liver, A/W VHL anti-HepB surface antibody is only present in what population - answer recovered or immunized not in chronic or acute proctalgia fugax is a form of what? - answer levator ani syndrome Proctalgia fugax is a form of levator syndrome (also called levator ani syndrome). Both include spasms of muscles in the pelvic area. Proctalgia fugax is temporary, but other types of levator syndrome can last for several days. Another major difference is the location of the pain. fasciculus is UMN or LMN lesion? - answer LMN

antibodies in hashimotos attacks - answer thyroid peroxidase or antithyroglobulin enlarged non tender thyroid 2 factors that influence starling curve - answer x axis- preload (EDV) y axis- stroke volume or CO treatment for fibromyalgia includes - answer TCA, SNRIs anticonvulsants what drugs block NE reuptake? - answer TCA or SNRIs possible complication of pagets bone disease - answer osteocarcoma what does Hct tell you? - answer ratio of volume of RBCs compared to total blood volume

Probenecid MOA? Common risk factor? - answer inhibits reabsoprtion of uric acid in PCT

• also inhibits secretion of PCN
• can cause uric acid calculi 2 causes of SCID include - answer 1.) ADA deficiency (adenosine deaminase required for degradation of adenosim and deoxyadenosine
• in ADA deficiency, high levels of dATP --> toxicity in lymphocytes --> SCID 2.) (most common) mutations in the gamma chain shared by a number of interleukin receptors (X- SCID) lithiums effects on urination - answer inhibits vasopression/ADH --> increased urinary frequency —> diabetes insipidus infertility drug that can result in multiple fetuses? MOA? Side effects? - answer clomiphene (clones- multiple babies)

antagonist at estrogen R in hypothalamus (thus inhibits normal negative feedback) upregulates LH and FSH release from pituitary --> ovulation Used to treat infertility and polycystic ovarian syndrome. may cause hot flashes, ovarian enlargement, multiple simultaneous pregnancies and visual disturbances. AFP levels in down syndrome? - answer low AFP Which GI malformation is A/W down syndrome - answer Hirschprungs- congenital aganglionic megacolon defective relaxation and peristalsis of rectum and distal sigmoid colon failure to pass meconium, empty rectal vault, megacolon

myasthenia gravis associations - answer thymoma, thymic hyperplasia ptosis, diplopia, can affect chewing, swallowing, speaking, shoulders, respiration tx for tinea? - answer azoles Can you give beta blockers for asthma? - answer Nope- even beta 1s can be nonselective at higher doses what kind of teratogenic effects are seen w ACE/ARBs - answer fetal renal agenesis What does stones bones groans moans psych overtones indicate - answer high Ca or PTH PTH is made by what cells? - answer chief cells of parathyroid gland

PTH inhibits reabsorption of phosphate where? increases calcium resorption where? - answer PO4- proximal tubule ca- DCT most common cause of cellultis - answer staph aureus, strep pyogenes FPR- direct or indirect? active or passive? - answer indirect- place them in position of diagnosis passive cant treat kid w tetracycline so what do you give? - answer amoxicillin which Heps are there currently vaccines for? - answer A and B (and so by virtue, also D) why does Hep D need Hep B? - answer Hep D utilizes the HBV surface antigen as its envelope? most common hepatitis A/W IVDA in the US - answer hep c

Roseola symptoms, population, and cause - answer 4 day high fever then rash on the trunk (spares face) affects babies up to 2 years HHV6- affects CD4 helper cells and kills them off erythema infectiosum is aka? What causes it? What are the symptoms? - answer slapped cheek parvovirus B nonspecific fever/prodrome then slapp cheek rash 5 days later, then rash appears on arms and spreads to trunk/legs rash can worsen w fever and sun exposure TORCH infxn so baby in womb that is exposed can lead to hydrops fetalis

most common STD - answer chlamydia sxs similar to STI plus discharge will have high neutrophil count dimorphic- butterflies - answer candida, histo, cocci, paracocci, blasto, sporothrix, butterflies huge pair of cocc catching stamp hip restricted in internal rotation dx? - answer innom outflare immune complex in glomerular mesangium 2 days after URI berger or PSGN? - answer berger PSGN is 2 wks post URI

college student w nonspecific symptoms nonproductive cough, sore throat CXR- diffuse infiltrates - answer mycoplasma pneumoniae test for trichomonas - answer nucleic acid amplification painless enlarging tumor in left testis 75 yo - answer diffuse large B cell lymphoma most common in 70-80s choriocarcinoma affecst what age group - answer 15-35 years old yolk sac tumor affects what population - answer infants and children 1-2 years Sensourineural hearing loss, tinnitus, paralysis of facial muslces, loss of corneal reflex are symptoms

of - answer Cerebellopontine angle tumor - between cerebellum and lateral pons -- CNs 5, 7, 9 Sleep changes in depressed patients? - answer decreased slow-wave sleep, decreased REM latency, REM early in sleep cycle, increased total REM sleep, repeated nighttime awakenings, early- morning awakenings Noradrenergic neurons are activated during waking, decrease their firing rate during slow wave sleep, and become silent during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. Cachexia mediated by - answer TNF-alpha, IFN- gamma, IL- Tx for Orotic aciduria - answer Uridine - inhibits carbamoyl phosphate synthetase Short acting benzos include - answer ATOM Alprazolam, Triazolam, Oxazepam, Midazolam Medium acting benzos include - answer LET

Lorazepam, Estraolam, Temazepam Long acting benzos - answer Clordiazepoxide, Clorazepate, Diazepam, Flurazepam Climacteric period is aka - answer Menopause Compartment syndrome d/t occlusion of: - answer Microvasculature (small arteries) Grave's disease antibody - answer anti-TSH Addison's disease - answer Primary adrenal insufficiency d/t adrenal atrophy or destruction by disease hpL - answer human placental lactogen - increases insulin resistance, stimulates proteolysis and lipolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis --> hyperinsulin, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia Hit in front or back of head - answer SBS compression

Hit under chin on same side - answer Torsion Blow on side of head - answer Torsion strain Hit on same side of head - answer Lateral strain Hit on forehead at top of head - answer Superior strain Hit at occiput - answer Inferior strain Touch, pain, temp sensation from ipsilateral face - answer Spinal trigeminal nucleus Ritodrine/Terbutaline - answer Beta 2 agonist that relzxes the uterus to reduce premature uterine cotnractions; tocolytic "Ritodrine allows the fetus to return to dreams" Ergonovine - answer to facilitate delivery of the placenta and to prevent bleeding after childbirth by

causing smooth muscle tissue in the blood vessel walls to narrow, thereby reducing blood flow; dx Prinzmental's angina Pyocyanin pigment - answer blue pigment - Pseudomonas Sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, paralysis of facial muscles, loss of corneal reflex - answer Cerebellopontine angle - b/w cerebellum and lateral pons; CNS 5, 7, 8 Hyperresonance to percussion should make you think of what diagnosis? - answer pneumothorax, large q waves indicate - answer Old infarcts Cachexia mediated by - answer TNF-alpha, IFN- gamma, IL- Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase positive in - answer Hairy Cell Leukemia

Low leukocyte ALP - answer CML cytosolic steroid receptor is used by what hormones - answer VET CAP Vitamin D, Estrogen, Testosterone, Cortisol, Aldosterone, Progesterone Nuclear steroid receptor is used by what hormones

• answer T3/T Tetanus tx - answer Tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid series Balantidium coli reservoir - answer protozoa found in pigs Sumatriptan moa - answer 5-HT 1B/1D agonist --> vasoconstsriction, inhibition of trigeminal activation and vasoactive peptide release Asthma drugs that cause tremors - answer Albuterol, Theophylline

Theophylline MOA - answer inhibits phosphodiesterease - increase cAMP an increase in cAMP concentration leads ultimately to a decrease in available calcium in the cell and smooth muscle relaxation. Xenograft comes from? - answer from different species syngeneic graft comes from? - answer from identical twin Cyclophosphamide moa - answer alkylates DNA Inferior vesical artery supplies - answer goes to fundus of bladder corticobulbar tract of internal capsule includes what nerves/neurons - answer composed of UMN of CNs, for muscles of face, head, and neck all CNs except III, IV, VI

inhaled anthrax on chest x ray? - answer shows up as mediastinal widening on CXR vaginosis and pH - answer pH of greater than 4. is likely bacterial insultation installers should make you think? - answer susceptible to asbestos junctional rhythm - answer pacemaker is the AV node. it usually presents without a P wave or with an inverted P wave. Retrograde P waves refers to the depolarization from the AV node back towards the SA node ova in stool can be one of the flooring four organisms - answer means one of the following: giardiasis amebiasis strongyloidosis taeniasis

Hyperhidrosis is a condition of? - answer abnormally increased sweating trichophytum rubrum causes what? - answer most common cause of athlete's foot, jock itch, ringworm impetigo most common cause - answer most common cause is staph aureus kernig's sign that is positive to ice cab indicate: - answer can indicate either subarachnoid hemorrhage or meningitis enterovirus 71 causes what? - answer can cause hand foot mouth dz and severe neurological sx in children. responsible for small epidemics in 1970s Porphyromonas gingivalis are? - answer culprit in periodontal dz and is linked to rheumatic fever ascaris lumbricoides is diagnosed by? Is endemic to? - answer dxed by fecal smear, and is found in latin america

Balantidium coli symptoms? Transmission? Micro? - answer In trophozoites, the two nuclei are visible. The macronucleus is long and sausage-shaped, and the spherical micronucleus is nested next to it, often hidden by the macronucleus. Balantidium is the only ciliated protozoan known to infect humans. Balantidiasis is a zoonotic disease and is acquired by humans via the feco-oral route from the normal host, the pig, where it is asymptomatic. Contaminated water is the most common mechanism of transmission. In acute disease, explosive diarrhea may occur as often as every twenty minutes. Perforation of the colon may also occur in acute infections which can lead to life- threatening situations Isosporiasis micro? Symptoms? Population? - answer The coccidian parasite Isospora belli infects the epithelial cells of the small intestine, and is the least common of the three intestinal coccidia that infect humans (Toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium, and Isospora). Infection causes acute, non-bloody diarrhea with crampy abdominal pain, which can last for weeks and result in malabsorption and weight loss. In immunodepressed patients, and in infants and

children, the diarrhea can be severe. Eosinophilia may be present (differently from other protozoan infections. What are the three intestinal coccidia that infect humans - answer (Toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium, and Isospora). Cilostazol used for? - answer Cilostazol is approved for the treatment of intermittent claudication Quadrigeminal cistern aka? - answer Superior cistern or cistern of the great cerebral vein Duret haemorrhage - answer Duret hemorrhages are small areas of bleeding in the ventral and paramedian parts of the upper brainstem, (midbrain and pons). They are secondary to raised intracranial pressure with formation of a transtentorial pressure cone involving the cerebral peduncles (crus cerebri) and other midbrain structures caused by raised pressure above the tentorium.

What is kernohans notch? - answer Kernohan's notch is a groove in the cerebral peduncle that may be caused by displacement of the brainstem against the incisura of the tentorium. (Ie uncal herniatiom) Kernohan's notch phenomenon is a result of the compression of the cerebral peduncle, which is part of the mesencephalon, against the tentorium cerebelli due to transtentorial herniation. This produces ipsilateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia[5] 1mo development - answer focus on face, lifts head, moro reflex, turns to sound, turns head to sound 2mo development - answer Coos, fixe and follow, grasps, smiles responsively, lifts head, turns head to sound 4mo development - answer Coos/squeals/laughs, Bears weight, follow 180 degrees, Grasps, Holds head/chest up, holds small toy, no head lag, reaches, rolls front to back, turns to sound

6mo development - answer Babbles, bears weight, laughs, pulls to sit, responds to name, rolls both ways, sits alone, transfers objects 9 mo development - answer Babbles, claps/waves/peek-a-boo, creepts/crawls, cruises, sits up on own, says mama/dada, plays pat-a-cake, Pincer grasp, pulls to stand, stands with support 12mo development - answer Cruises, fills/empties containers, sits up on own, holds up and drinks, imitates words, pincer grasp, stands a lone, turns pages, says 1-2 words, walks alone 15mo development - answer Climbs furniture, Dances, jargon, rides toys, stacks 2 object tower, stands alone, scoops and recovers, throws ball, uses cup, uses spoon, says 4 words, walks well 18mo development - answer says 8 or more words, feeds self, follows simple directions, imitates housework, knows 2 or more body parts, names pictures, rides toys, runs, uses spoon/fork, walks backward, walks up & down stairs

24mo development - answer 2-word sentences, follows 2-step verbal command, gets along well with fam members, acts worried if parent is sad, helps dress self, holds cup in one hand, jumps with both feet, kicks a ball, removes clothes, runs, walks up/down stairs, scribbles, throws overhand 3-yr developmental milestones - answer 3-5 word sentences, balances on one foot, asks what? why? builds 10-block tower, copies circle and x, counts to 3, dresses self, knows name/age/gender, pedals tricyle, plays with other kids, recognizes 3 colors, toilet trained, walks upstairs alternating feet 4-yr developmental milestones - answer 4-5 word sentences, catches ball, cuts and pastes, draws people, dresses and undresses themselves, enjoy jokes, jumps/hops, names 4-5 colors, pedals tricycle, plays well with others, walks on tiptoes 5yr developmental milestones - answer counts to 10, draws people with 2-5 body parts, follows directions, knows address/phone number, knows on/off, over/under, plays cooperatively, pretend play, prints name, rides bike, skips, speaks understandably, tells, imaginary stories

Unpasteurized goat cheese can contain what organism - answer Brucella laxative abuse consequences - answer electrolyte imbalance severe dehydration dependency stretched or "lazy" colon balantidium coli what is it in general? How do you get infected and what does it cause? - answer protozoa that causes GI infection, ingest cysts thru infected water or food produces hyalonuridase and creates ulcers in mucosal walls Isospora belli causes what symptoms - answer diarrhea, steatorrhea, malabsorption, non-bloody diarrhea Ballottement test tests for what? How to do it? - answer Ballottement is a medical sign which indicates increased fluid in the suprapatellar pouch