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Question 1. Which FAR part defines “contracting officer” and outlines the scope of their authority? A) FAR Part 2 B) FAR Part 5 C) FAR Part 15 D) FAR Part 42 Answer: A Explanation: FAR Part 2 provides definitions, including that of a contracting officer and the limits of actual versus apparent authority. Question 2. Under the Procurement Integrity Act, which of the following is prohibited for a contractor after a contract award? A) Submitting a protest to the GAO B) Disclosing bid or proposal information to a competitor C) Requesting a debriefing D) Filing a claim for equitable adjustment Answer: B Explanation: The act bars contractors from revealing procurement-sensitive information that could give a competitor an unfair advantage. Question 3. A contracting officer receives a request from a potential offeror to discuss a solicitation’s evaluation criteria before the award. Which principle is being protected? A) Full and open competition B) Best value determination C) Source selection confidentiality D) Small‑business set‑aside requirements Answer: C
Explanation: Source selection information is confidential until the award; discussing it prematurely would violate FAR Part 15.504. Question 4. Which of the following best describes an “apparent authority” situation? A) The contracting officer’s written delegation of authority B) A contractor’s belief that the CO has authority based on prior actions C) Actual legal authority granted by statute D) Authority inferred from the CO’s title and conduct Answer: D Explanation: Apparent authority arises when a party reasonably believes the CO has authority because of the CO’s position or actions, even if not formally granted. Question 5. In acquisition planning, market research is primarily conducted to: A) Determine the exact price to be offered B) Identify potential sources and assess competition C) Draft the contract’s clauses D) Set the contract’s delivery schedule Answer: B Explanation: Market research gathers data on supplier capabilities, pricing, and competition to shape acquisition strategy. Question 6. Which contract type places the greatest risk on the government? A) Firm‑fixed‑price (FFP) B) Cost‑plus‑fixed‑fee (CPFF) C) Time‑and‑materials (T&M)
B) Promote interdisciplinary collaboration among stakeholders C) Eliminate the need for a contracting officer’s oversight D) Restrict contractors from interacting with program offices Answer: B Explanation: The acquisition team brings together program, legal, finance, and contracting personnel to improve decision‑making. Question 10. Which FAR part governs the publicizing of contract actions on SAM.gov? A) FAR Part 5 B) FAR Part 6 C) FAR Part 7 D) FAR Part 13 Answer: A Explanation: FAR Part 5 outlines requirements for notices, synopses, and other publicizing obligations. Question 11. A solicitation includes a Performance Work Statement (PWS). Which acquisition approach does this most likely indicate? A) Price‑type contract with detailed specifications B) Outcome‑based contract focusing on results C) Firm‑fixed‑price contract with a fixed schedule D) Indefinite‑delivery contract with set‑aside clauses Answer: B Explanation: A PWS describes desired outcomes and performance metrics, supporting performance‑based contracts.
Question 12. Under FAR Part 12, which of the following is true about commercial items? A) They must be procured using sealed bidding. B) They are exempt from the Truth in Negotiations Act. C) They require a full cost analysis before award. D) They cannot be subject to simplified acquisition procedures. Answer: B Explanation: Commercial items are generally excluded from TINA requirements because pricing is presumed to be fair. Question 13. Which evaluation method emphasizes the lowest evaluated price that meets the technical requirements? A) Best value B) Lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) C) Trade‑off analysis D) Cost‑benefit analysis Answer: B Explanation: LPTA selects the lowest price among proposals that satisfy all technical criteria. Question 14. In a sealed‑bidding process, what is the primary factor that determines award? A) Technical merit B) Past performance C) Price, after verifying compliance with specifications D) Small‑business status Answer: C
B) Price analysis C) Earned value analysis D) Life‑cycle cost analysis Answer: B Explanation: Price analysis evaluates the reasonableness of a price using market comparables, quotes, and other data without a deep cost breakdown. Question 18. The “competitive range” in a negotiation is established to: A) Identify all offerors that submitted a proposal. B) Limit discussions to those who can potentially be awarded. C) Exclude small businesses from competition. D) Determine the final contract price. Answer: B Explanation: The competitive range contains offerors whose proposals are deemed technically acceptable and reasonably priced for award. Question 19. A Pre‑Negotiation Objective Memo (POM) is used to: A) Document the final contract price. B) Outline the negotiation strategy and target price. C) Record the contractor’s past performance. D) Summarize the solicitation’s evaluation criteria. Answer: B Explanation: The POM sets the negotiation’s objectives, including target price, concessions, and desired outcomes.
Question 20. After an award, a contractor requests a debrief. Which of the following is required to be provided? A) The contractor’s ranking relative to others. B) The government’s evaluation of the contractor’s past performance. C) The source selection decision rationale. D) The exact price of the winning offeror. Answer: C Explanation: FAR Part 15.506 requires the debrief to include the basis for the source selection decision, but not the ranking or competitor prices. Question 21. A protest is filed with the GAO alleging a violation of FAR Part 6. What is the GAO’s primary authority? A) To enforce contract performance. B Answer: C Explanation: The GAO reviews protests to ensure compliance with procurement law and FAR requirements; it does not modify contracts. Question 22. Which clause governs the contractor’s obligation to accept unilateral modifications? A) Changes clause (FAR 52.243‑1) B) Termination for default clause (FAR 52.249‑2) C) Disputes clause (FAR 52.233‑1) D) Inspection clause (FAR 52.246‑2) Answer: A Explanation: The Changes clause permits the contracting officer to make unilateral changes within the contract’s scope.
Explanation: The ADA bars federal officials from spending or obligating funds that have not been appropriated. Question 26. Which payment method ties a portion of the price to measurable performance outcomes? A) Fixed‑price with economic price adjustment B) Cost‑reimbursement with fee C) Performance‑based payment (PBP) D) Time‑and‑materials Answer: C Explanation: PBP links payments to the achievement of specific performance metrics, incentivizing contractor results. Question 27. The Contract Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) is used to: A) Record contractor invoices. B) Evaluate contractor performance for future source selections. C) File contract modifications. D) Publish contract award notices. Answer: B Explanation: CPARS documents past performance, influencing future award decisions. Question 28. Which clause is required in all contracts to address quality assurance? A) Inspection clause (FAR 52.246‑2) B) Termination clause (FAR 52.249‑2) C) Changes clause (FAR 52.243‑1)
D) Disputes clause (FAR 52.233‑1) Answer: A Explanation: The Inspection clause establishes the government’s right to inspect and accept contract deliverables. Question 29. A bilateral modification requires: A) Only the contracting officer’s signature. B) Signatures from both the government and the contractor. C) A notice of award. D) A protest filing. Answer: B Explanation: Bilateral modifications are mutually agreed changes that must be signed by both parties. Question 30. Which of the following is NOT a permissible reason for a contract termination for convenience (T4C)? A) Change in mission requirements. B) Contractor’s repeated failure to meet schedule. C) Budget cutbacks. D) Discovery of a more cost‑effective solution. Answer: B Explanation: Termination for convenience is a unilateral government action unrelated to contractor performance; repeated failure would trigger termination for default. Question 31. The Contract Disputes Act (CDA) provides a remedy for disputes arising from: A) Procurement integrity violations.
A) FAR Part 5 B) FAR Part 12 C) FAR Part 13 D) FAR Part 15 Answer: B Explanation: FAR Part 12 provides policies and procedures for procuring commercial items. Question 35. The “best value” source‑selection approach differs from LPTA because it: A) Considers only price. B) Allows trade‑offs between price and non‑price factors. C) Requires the lowest price among technically acceptable offers. D) Excludes past performance from evaluation. Answer: B Explanation: Best value permits the government to weigh price against technical merit, past performance, and other factors. Question 36. Which of the following actions would constitute a conflict of interest for a contracting officer? A) Owning stock in a company that is a potential offeror. B) Attending a conference on procurement ethics. C) Reviewing a solicitation drafted by a colleague. D) Using a government‑issued laptop for personal use. Answer: A Explanation: Personal financial interest in a prospective contractor creates a conflict of interest.
Question 37. Under FAR Part 6, what is the minimum competition requirement for a contract valued at $5 million? A) Full and open competition, unless a statutory exception applies. B) Competition limited to 3 offerors. C) Competition only among small businesses. D) No competition required if the agency determines a single source is best. Answer: A Explanation: Full and open competition is the default, with limited exceptions provided by law or regulation. Question 38. Which of the following is a “statutory” requirement? A) The format of the solicitation’s evaluation criteria. B) The requirement to provide a debrief to unsuccessful offerors. C) The threshold for mandatory public posting of contract actions. D) The requirement to use the Uniform Contract Format (UCF). Answer: C Explanation: Statutory requirements stem from enacted laws, such as the $25,000 threshold for posting notices. Question 39. The Uniform Contract Format (UCF) is required for contracts with an estimated value of: A) $5 million or more B) $25 million or more C) $150 million or more D) All contracts regardless of value Answer: C
Answer: D Explanation: While past performance influences source selection, contract type selection focuses on risk, price, and market conditions. Question 43. A “sole source” acquisition may be justified under which of the following circumstances? A) The contractor is the only source of a proprietary item. B) The government wants to favor a small business. C) The agency wants to expedite the award. D) The contract value is below the micro‑purchase threshold. Answer: A Explanation: Sole‑source justification is permissible when only one source can provide the required product or service. Question 44. Which FAR part governs the acquisition of services through a Statement of Objectives (SOO)? A) FAR Part 12 B) FAR Part 15 C) FAR Part 31 D) FAR Part 33 Answer: B Explanation: FAR Part 15.101‑2 allows the use of an SOO to describe performance objectives for negotiated procurements. Question 45. The “fixed‑price with economic price adjustment” (FPEPA) contract is most appropriate when:
A) The contractor’s costs are highly uncertain. B) Market conditions are expected to change during performance. C) The government wants to retain full cost control. D) The contract involves research and development. Answer: B Explanation: FPEPA includes provisions to adjust price based on predefined economic indices when market conditions shift. Question 46. A contractor submits an invoice that exceeds the approved budget for a line item. The contracting officer should: A) Pay the full amount and issue a corrective action later. B) Reject the invoice and request a revised submission. C) Approve the overage under the Changes clause without a modification. D) Forward the invoice to the GAO for review. Answer: B Explanation: Invoices must not exceed authorized amounts; the CO must reject and request a corrected invoice. Question 47. Which of the following is NOT a component of a Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan (QASP)? A) Inspection methods and frequency. B) Contractor’s internal audit procedures. C) Acceptance criteria for deliverables. D) Government surveillance responsibilities. Answer: B
D) Overcharging the government for labor. Answer: C Explanation: Kickbacks are illicit payments to influence officials, prohibited under FAR Part 3.703‑2. Question 51. When a contract is modified unilaterally by the contracting officer, the contractor may claim a: A) Termination for default. B) Constructive change. C) Equitable adjustment. D) Waiver of liability. Answer: C Explanation: An equitable adjustment compensates the contractor for the cost impact of a unilateral change. Question 52. Which FAR part outlines the procedures for contract protests? A) FAR Part 15 B) FAR Part 33 C) FAR Part 42 D) FAR Part 49 Answer: B Explanation: FAR Part 33 governs protests, disputes, and appeals. Question 53. A contract’s “termination for default” clause is triggered when the contractor: A) Requests a price increase. B) Fails to perform in accordance with contract terms.
C) Submits a claim for additional funds. D) Provides a debriefing request. Answer: B Explanation: Termination for default occurs due to the contractor’s failure to meet contractual obligations. Question 54. Which of the following is a mandatory element of a contract closeout checklist? A) Final performance appraisal of the contracting officer. B) Confirmation that all government property has been disposed of or accounted for. C) Publication of the contract award notice in the Federal Register. D) Submission of a cost‑plus‑fixed‑fee invoice. Answer: B Explanation: Closeout requires verification that all government-furnished property is returned or properly disposed. Question 55. Under FAR Part 42, which document provides audit services for contract administration? A) Contracting Officer’s Representative (COR) report B) Contractor’s internal audit C) Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA) audit report D) Small Business Administration (SBA) review Answer: C Explanation: FAR Part 42 references the DCAA for audit services related to contract administration. Question 56. A contract includes a “Termination for Convenience” clause. Which of the following is true?
