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Crash Course Review-urs
apthous stomatitis, herpes - correct answer _________________ ____________________ aka cancar sores are typically located inside the mouth whereas _________________ lesions are typically outside the mouth herpes - correct answer ___________________ lesions are described as painful, clustered vesicles on an erythematous base, must be treated within 48-72 hours keratosis pilaris - correct answer commonly referred to as "chicken bumps," or "chicken skin," treated with emolients/moisturizers, most of the time children outgrow the condition strep pyrogenes, staph aureus - correct answer the two most common bacterial causes of impetigo are ______________ ___________________ and ____________ ________________ oral, mupirocin - correct answer bullous impetigo must be treated with ___________ antibiotics while non-bullous impetigo can be treated with _____________________ (bactroban) pityriasis rosea - correct answer self-limiting condition preceded by a Herald patch prior to full rash distribution, rash is characterized by a "Christmas tree like" pattern brown recluse - correct answer bites from this spider present as though the patient did not notice the bite the night before but it became tender and turned deep purple the next and often has a white halo around it, can report some systemic symptoms as well rocky mountain spotted fever - correct answer illness precipitated by a tick bite, treated with doxycycline, rash typically presents 3-5 days after initial symptoms on the palms of hands and soles of feet
erythema migrans - correct answer characteristic "bull's eye" lesion, also known as lyme disease rubeola (measles) (koplik's spots) - correct answer condition characterized by the "3 C's," cough, congestion, conjunctivitis 3-5 days after initial rash presents. Can be prevented by MMR vaccine at 12 months old. mumps - correct answer most common symptom of this condition is parotid gland swelling actinic keratosis - correct answer skin lesion characterized by dry pink lesions on a sun exposed area, if left untreated can lead to cancer, specifically squamous cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma - correct answer skin cancer characterized by slow growth, scaly, ulcerated appearance, bleeds easily cafe au lait spots - correct answer hyperpigmentation of the skin, typically benign and does not require further intervention, however if a patient has more than 8 of them it may indicate underlying disorder such as neurofibromatosis melanoma - correct answer the "ABCDE" tool is used to evaluate a lesion that you suspect may be malignant ___________________, A= asymmetry, B= border, C= color, D= diameter, E= evolving/elevated eczema (atopic dermatitis) - correct answer skin condition characterized by intensely pruritic itch/scratch cycle, typically located on flexor surfaces of the body emollients, steroids - correct answer eczema (atopic dermatitis) is often associated with allergies and asthma and is treated with _____________________ and topical ________________ plaque psoriasis - correct answer skin condition characterized by thick silvery scales, it is treated with topical steroids or coal tar
molluscum contagiosum - correct answer skin lesions characterized by indent in the middle of the lesion, commonly referred to as the lesion being impregnated or having a "dimpling," highly contagious but self-limiting and usually resolves on their own over a few months groin - correct answer if molluscum contagiosum lesions are located in the _______________ area we should investigate further as it could indicated possible sexual abuse anthrax - correct answer ____________________ lesions are usually black and characterized as painless ulceration, typically seen in farmers ciprofloxacin, 2 - correct answer anthrax lesions are treated with ______________________ for at least ______ months, can also use tetracyclines if need be hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) - correct answer skin condition that causes small, painful lumps to form under the skin commonly in areas where the skin rubs together such as the armpits or groin, this condition is NOT related to poor hygiene and the biggest risk factors are smoking and obesity, treated with warm compresses and oral abx unless large enough then I&D folliculitis - correct answer skin infection of the hair follicles and surrounding tissue, treated with mupirocin unless severe then oral abx such as penicillin or keflex rosacea - correct answer erythematous facial rash that does not spare the nose/nasolabial fold flagyl - correct answer rosacea is treated with topical ________________ gel lupus - correct answer rash from this disease is characterized as a butterfly rash that does spare the nose/nasolabial fold, called a malar rash
Sjogren's syndrome - correct answer this disease is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth, often associated with lupus erysipelas - correct answer sharply defined and well demarcated borders, essentially a more superficial cellulitis keflex, penicillin - correct answer erysipelas and non- purulent cellulitis are treated with ______________ or _______________________ bactrim, clindamycin, doxycycline - correct answer purulent cellulitis is treated with (BCD) __________________, ______________________ or
geographical tongue - correct answer benign tongue condition typically preceded by spit and hot foods leukoplakia - correct answer white spots/patches on the tongue and mucous membranes in the mouth that do not scrape off, often considered precancerous and seen in those with HIV, should be referred to the dentist candidiasis - correct answer white spots/patches in the mouth that do scrape off fifth's disease - correct answer childhood exanthem that starts with a fever and slapped cheek presentation, a lacy net-like rash across the body then develops, self-limiting condition however stay away from pregnant women who are not immune as it can cause miscarriage fluconazole, symptom - correct answer fungal infections such as tinea corporis, tinea barbae, tibea cruris and tinea pedis are treated with anti-fungals such as ______________________, topical or systemic treatment depends on _________________ severity
cotton wool spots - correct answer white to yellow fluffy patches seen on the retina almost always related to diabetic retinopathy AV nicking - correct answer seen on fundoscopic exam when an artery crosses a vein and causes it to bulge, usually due to hypertension copper wire arteries - correct answer seen on fundoscopic exam, arteries appear red or copper colored in nature, usually due to hypertension acute angle closure glaucoma - correct answer eye emergency that presents as sudden severe eye pain, blurred vision, eye feels firm to touch, use tonometry to diagnose retinal detachment - correct answer stereotypical description of this eye emergency is that there is a curtain closing over the eye, also often complain of floaters, blurred vision, flashes of light arcus senilus - correct answer gray halo around outer eye, due to elevated cholesterol xanthelasma - correct answer cholesterol deposits around eyes, due to elevated cholesterol pterygium - correct answer benign, non-cancerous overgrowth of the conjunctiva, eye redness but overall asymptomatic, does encroach the cornea pingeucula - correct answer overgrowth of the conjunctiva that does NOT cross the cornea hordeolum (stye) - correct answer also known as a stye, usually caused by staph aureus, can have purulent drainage, treated with warm compresses and often require abx
chalazion - correct answer small cyst on the eyelid caused by blockage of meibomian glands, treated with warm compresses allergic - correct answer this type of conjunctivitis starts bilaterally and it is typical to see serous drainage viral - correct answer this type of conjunctivitis starts unilaterally and often spreads to the other eye, typical to see serous drainage bacterial - correct answer this type of conjunctivitis starts unilaterally and often spreads to the other eye, typical to see purulent drainage presbyopia - correct answer farsightedness caused by loss of elasticity to the lens of the eye, expected to occur in middle-aged and older, it is common for patients to state that "arms seem to short" when presenting with this condition corneal abrasion - correct answer this diagnosis is commonly associated with a recent episode of Bell's palsy in which the patient was not lubricating their eyes properly iritis - correct answer eye pain that is sensitive to light and not able to see as well as normal, entire eye appears red and there is inflammation of the iris, refer this pt to ophthalmology as it can lead to permanent blindness receptive - correct answer when Wernicke's area is affected it leads to _________________ aphasia expressive - correct answer when Broca's area is affected it leads to __________________ aphasia
apraxia, agnosia, aphasia - correct answer the 3 A's associated with Alzheimer's disease trigeminal neuralgia - correct answer condition associated with cranial nerve V characterized by severe stabbing pain in the face, pain is so severe patients with this condition are at an increased risk for suicide Tegretol (carbamazepine) - correct answer Anticonvulsant drug that is used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia air, bone (AC > BC) - correct answer Rinne test assesses cranial nerve 8, a normal finding is that ________ conduction will be longer than ____________ conduction equally - correct answer Weber test assesses cranial nerve 8, a normal finding is that the sound will be heard ____________________ by both ears (no lateralization) bad - correct answer when performing the Weber test if the patient has conductive hearing loss the sound will lateralize to the __________ ear good - correct answer when performing the Weber test if the patient has sensorineural hearing loss the sound will lateralize to the __________ ear Meniere's disease - correct answer disorder of the inner ear that causes vertigo, tinnitus, ear pressure, nystagmus, concern for permanent hearing loss PHQ-2, PHQ-9 - correct answer we screen for depression by using the ___________ questionnaire and if they have a positive result then we use the ____________ questionnaire
serotonin - correct answer symptoms of this life- threatening syndrome associated with use of antidepressants include shivering, seizures, tremors and visual disturbances bipolar - correct answer this disorder is characterized by phases, may be manic for a few weeks (excited, making impulse purchases, not sleeping) and then flip to extremely depresses (cant get out of bed, cant do daily activities) 200 - correct answer normal total cholesterol level is less than _____________ 40-60 - correct answer normal HDL level is _____-_____ (the higher the better) 100 - correct answer normal LDL level is less than
150 - correct answer normal triglyceride level is less than _______ lifestyle modifications, 7.5 - correct answer first line treatment for hyperlipidemia is _____________________ ___________________ and the ASCVD risk cutoff to initiate medications for hyperlipidemia is >_________% 5 - correct answer a lipid profile should be ordered every ______ years unless there are risk factors present atorvastatin, rosuvastatin - correct answer what are the two high-intensity statins? (when given at high doses) LFTs, muscle pain - correct answer prior to initiating statin therapy two things should be assessed, baseline ___________ and baseline daily ____________________ ____________
S2 - correct answer this is the only heart sound heart at the base of the heart, it is heard with the closure of the SL valves (aortic and pulmonic) S1 - correct answer heart sound that is heard with the closure of the AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) inspiration - correct answer a split S2 heart sound is a normal finding if you can only hear it during ___________________, if it is heard during both inspiration and expiration then REFER! systolic - correct answer only ___________________ murmurs radiate armpit - correct answer mitral regurgitation radiates into the ______________ neck - correct answer aortic stenosis radiates into the
diastolic - correct answer ___________________ murmurs should be immediately referred MR PASS MVP - correct answer mnemonic for systolic murmurs (Mitral Regurgitation, Physiological, Aortic Stenosis, Systolic, Mitral Valve Prolapse) 4 - correct answer at what grade murmur do we feel a palpable thrill? MS. ARD - correct answer mnemonic for diastolic murmurs (Mitral Stenosis, Aortic Regurgitation, Diastolic)
PAD (peripheral arterial disease) - correct answer characterized by purple and shiny legs, pain with activity that is relieved with rest and dangling, ulcer on toe ABI, 0.9 - correct answer the diagnostic test for PAD is _________ and a score of <_________ indicates PAD chronic venous insufficiency - correct answer characterized by reddish brown discoloration to legs, edema to BLE Raynaud's phenomenon - correct answer disorder that causes decreased blood flow to the fingers, precipitated by exposure to cold or stress, treated with CCBs and avoiding triggers Intermittent, Mild, Moderate, Severe - correct answer Order of asthma severity LABA - correct answer never give ___________ alone as treatment for asthma, must be given with ICS low dose ICS - correct answer cornerstone of asthma treatment peak flow - correct answer the three things that impact ___________ _____________ measurements are height, age and gender ICS-LABA, PRN - correct answer for intermittent asthma symptoms we will use an _______-___________ _________ ICS, daily - correct answer for mild asthma symptoms we will use a low dose __________ ______________ ICS-LABA, daily - correct answer for moderate asthma symptoms we will use a low dose _______-___________ ____________
upper - correct answer unlike pneumonia, it is common to see TB in the _______________ lobes of the lungs 5 - correct answer in HIV and immunocompromised patients a TB skin test >_______mm is considered a positive result 10 - correct answer in immigrants a TB skin test >_______mm is considered a positive result 15 - correct answer in the general public (not HIV or immunocompromised, not an immigrant), a TB skin test >_______mm is considered a positive result sputum - correct answer a diagnosis of TB must be confirmed with _________________ cultures penicillin - correct answer if we give a pt with concurrent mono and strep a ____________________ it can lead to a morbilliform rash, in pt's with concurrent strep and mono a macrolide or cephalosporin should be used to treat the strep viral - correct answer most cases (>95%) of bronchitis are _________________ acute sinusitis - correct answer symptoms of this URI include a recent acute URI and 7-10 days later had recurrence of symptoms, pain when bending over, possible unilateral toothache Augmentin - correct answer first line abx choice for sinusitis is ____________________ to prevent periorbital cellulitis from developing intranasal corticosteroids, antihistamines - correct answer first line medication treatment for allergic rhinitis is _________________________ _________________________ while second line is ________________________
TSH, 0.5 - 5.0 - correct answer our go-to screening tool for the thyroid is a ____________ level and the normal range is ________-_________ high, low - correct answer in hypothyroidism the TSH will be ___________ and the T3/T4 will be ________ low, high - correct answer in hyperthyroidism the TSH will be ________ and the T3/T4 will be ___________ 4-6 - correct answer TSH level should be re-checked _____-_____ weeks after initiation of treatment calcium, phosphorus - correct answer the parathyroid gland regulates the body's ________________ and ________________________ levels, which have an inverse relationship Somogyi effect - correct answer hyperglycemia upon awakening, however there is a dip in blood glucose in the middle of the night dawn phenomenon - correct answer hyperglycemia upon awakening due to blood glucose steadily rising all night 6.5 - correct answer T2DM is diagnosed with HbA1c _________ or > 2,550 - correct answer the maximum dose of metformin is ____________mg daily divided out across the day sulfonylureas - correct answer which antidiabetic medication class is notorious for causing hypoglycemia issues and should be avoided in elderly patients for this reason?
macrocytic - correct answer B12 deficiency and folate deficiency are common forms of ____________________ anemias B12 deficiency - correct answer which anemia is associated with neurological symptoms? HBsAg - correct answer hepatitis B surface antigen, a positive test for this means there is either an acute or chronic Hep B infection IgM - correct answer used to measure Hep B infection, indicates active acute infection vaccine, immunoglobulin - correct answer if a patient is exposed to Hep B and has not had the vaccination series we should give both the ________________ and the _________________________ give them all vaccines - correct answer if a patient presents and does not know their vaccination status what do we do? clotting - correct answer polycythemia vera is a condition in which there is too many RBCs and the blood is too thick, thus this increases the risk for ________________ blood letting - correct answer both polycythemia vera and hemochromatosis are treated with regular ____________ ___________________ Rovsing's - correct answer sign for appendicitis, palpate the LLQ and it hurts in the RLQ Markle test (Heel Jar) - correct answer sign for appendicitis, pain in the RLQ when hopping on one foot
Blumberg - correct answer sign for appendicitis, rebound tenderness McBurney's point - correct answer 2/3 the distance between the umbilicus and anterior iliac crest, tender to palpation HIDA - correct answer if we have a strong suspicion for cholecystitis but abdominal US does not show gallstones then order a ____________ scan, we can only perform this test if we know there are no gallstones present as they can become dislodged and cause pancreatitis Cullen's - correct answer bluish discoloration around the umbilicus, can indicate intrabdominal bleeding such as necrotizing pancreatitis Turner's - correct answer bluish discoloration on the flank, can indicate intrabdominal bleeding such as necrotizing pancreatitis Chvostek's - correct answer sign that is indicative of significant hypocalcemia, tap on the pt's face and they will have twitching/scrunching Trousseau's - correct answer sign that is indicative of significant hypocalcemia, inflate BP cuff and pt has involuntary contracture of hand/arm malignancy - correct answer asymptomatic hypercalcemia can be indicative of underlying ______________________, pt should have levels re-checked Barret's esophagitis - correct answer GERD patients should always be treated to prevent ___________________ _____________________ which can increase risk of esophageal cancer CCBs - correct answer which BP medication should be avoided in GERD patients?
