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DAVITA CERTIFICATION EXAMS: FINAL VERSION
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | STAR
LEARNING | PCT FINAL | CCHT PRACTICE
LATEST 2026/2027 UPDATE | 100% VERIFIED | GRADED
A+
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. DOCUMENT INFORMATION................................... PAGE 1
2. SECTION 1: DAVITA STAR LEARNING EXAM.................. PAGE 2
3. SECTION 2: PCT FINAL EXAM............................. PAGE 6
4. SECTION 3: CCHT PRACTICE EXAM......................... PAGE 11
5. QUICK REFERENCE ANSWER KEY............................ PAGE 17
DOCUMENT INFORMATION
Organization: DaVita Inc. Exams Covered: Star Learning, PCT Final Exam, CCHT Practice Exam Latest Update: 2025/ Total Questions: 100+ (Comprehensive Coverage) Grade: A+ Verified
This document contains the "Final Version" of DaVita test questions and answers, compiled from multiple verified sources. It is designed as a complete study guide for dialysis technicians preparing for DaVita certification exams, annual competencies, and the CCHT certification.
SECTION 1: DAVITA STAR LEARNING EXAM
Question 1.
The primary electrolyte in both our blood and the dialysate is:
Answer: Sodium
Rationale: Sodium is the primary electrolyte in blood and dialysate, playing a crucial role in fluid balance, nerve transmission, and muscle function. Dialysate sodium concentration is carefully controlled to match patient needs.
Question 1.
Policy states the conductivity meter should be calibrated when an inaccurate reading is suspected. It should also be calibrated:
Answer: Prior to daily use
Rationale: Conductivity meters must be calibrated before daily use to ensure accurate monitoring of dialysate composition. This is a critical safety step to prevent patient exposure to improperly mixed dialysate.
Question 1.
When the dialysate sodium level is higher than the level in the blood:
Answer: Diffusion will cause sodium to move into the blood
Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. When dialysate sodium exceeds blood sodium, sodium diffuses into the blood to achieve equilibrium.
Question 1.
The calibration of the conductivity meter should be completed at least:
Answer: Daily
Rationale: Conductivity meter calibration must be performed at least daily to ensure ongoing accuracy and patient safety throughout the treatment day.
Question 1.
Hypernatremia can lead to:
Answer: Excessive thirst and decreased weight gains between treatments
Rationale: High sodium levels (hypernatremia) stimulate thirst as the body attempts to dilute the blood. Patients may drink more, but this can paradoxically lead to decreased interdialytic weight gains if they restrict fluid due to education.
Question 1.
Answer: Before the initiation of each patient treatment
Rationale: Alarm systems must be verified functional before every treatment to ensure patient safety during dialysis.
Question 1.
Once set up for treatment, the recirculation time for a dialyzer should not exceed:
Answer: 2 hours
Rationale: Extended recirculation time can allow bacterial growth in the dialyzer and compromise the integrity of the sterile setup.
Question 1.
To prepare a 1:100 bleach solution, you would:
Answer: Add 1 part of bleach to 99 parts of water
Rationale: 1:100 bleach solutions are used for routine disinfection of surfaces and equipment. The ratio must be precise for effective disinfection.
Question 1.
What happens if bleach and peracetic acid are mixed?
Answer: A chemical reaction occurs, producing toxic chlorine gas
Rationale: Mixing bleach with acidic solutions like peracetic acid releases toxic chlorine gas, which can cause severe respiratory injury and death. These chemicals must NEVER be mixed.
Question 1.
What is the safe range for dialysate pH?
Answer: Between 6.9 and 7.
Rationale: Dialysate pH must be maintained within this range to ensure patient safety and prevent complications from acid-base imbalance.
Question 1.
Why is a "strikethrough" of an external pressure transducer protector of concern?
Answer: Fluid could have entered the machine and contaminated the internal pressure transducer protector, providing a reservoir for microorganisms and causing subsequent patient blood infections
Rationale: The transducer protector is a bacterial barrier. Strikethrough indicates barrier failure and potential machine contamination, requiring immediate intervention.
SECTION 2: PCT FINAL EXAM
Question 2.
Your patient is complaining of cramps and you have already administered 100 mL saline bolus, but the patient is still cramping. Which of the following is not an acceptable intervention?
Answer: Applying a glove filled with hot water
Rationale: While warm compresses can help with cramps, a glove filled with hot water poses burn risk and is not a standard, acceptable intervention. Other measures like hypertonic saline or reducing ultrafiltration rate would be more appropriate.
Question 2.
What is the correct procedure for drawing a post BUN lab specimen at the completion of the dialysis treatment?
Answer: Turn off or decrease to 50 mL/hr, decrease DFR to 300 mL/min or place in bypass, reduce BFR to 100 mL/min, wait 15 seconds and draw the sample from the arterial line
Rationale: This slow flow method prevents recirculation and dilution errors, ensuring accurate measurement of urea clearance for adequacy calculations (Kt/V, URR).
Question 2.
Per DaVita policy, prior to each medication preparation, the medication preparation surface area is:
Answer: To be disinfected with a 1:100 bleach solution or approved disinfectant
Rationale: Medication preparation areas must be disinfected before each use to prevent cross-contamination and ensure patient safety.
Rationale: Lavender top tubes contain EDTA anticoagulant. Proper inversion ensures thorough mixing and prevents clot formation that would invalidate lab results.
Question 2.
To make a 1:10 bleach solution for cleaning gross blood spills you would combine:
Answer: 1 part bleach with 9 parts water
Rationale: 1:10 bleach solution is the standard concentration for disinfecting gross blood spills due to its strong biocidal activity.
Question 2.
When sodium loading occurs during the dialysis treatment:
Answer: It leads to an increase in thirst and larger fluid weight gains with hypertension between treatments and can contribute to headaches after the treatment
Rationale: High sodium dialysate causes sodium to enter the blood, stimulating thirst, increasing interdialytic weight gain, and contributing to hypertension and post-dialysis headaches.
Question 2.
You listen to the bruit of the access, and instead of hearing the typical whoosh with each heartbeat, you detect a distinctive slam slam sound. This may indicate:
Answer: A stenosis, and should be reported to the nurse
Rationale: A high-pitched, discontinuous sound (slam slam) suggests turbulent flow from a narrowing (stenosis) in the access, requiring immediate assessment and possible intervention to prevent access failure.
Question 2.
During data collection, a patient mentions her bowel movements have been looking quite dark the last two days. You should:
Answer: Inform the nurse to assess the patient prior to treatment initiation
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools suggest gastrointestinal bleeding, which requires immediate nursing assessment before treatment, as anticoagulation during dialysis could worsen bleeding.
Question 2.
Which is not an acceptable assignment for a PCT working in a facility that cares for a patient with hepatitis B infection?
Answer: Caring for HBV+ and susceptible patients at the same time
Rationale: Hepatitis B positive and susceptible patients must be separated to prevent transmission. Staff assignments should reflect this isolation requirement.
Question 2.
Your immediate intervention for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction is:
Answer: Stop the blood pump and do not return the blood
Rationale: In anaphylaxis, blood should not be returned to prevent further infusion of the allergen into the patient. The priority is stopping the exposure.
Question 2.
Which statement about MRSA is true?
Answer: MRSA bacteria can survive on surfaces especially plastic and vinyl for days
Rationale: MRSA is environmentally hardy and can persist on surfaces for extended periods, emphasizing the importance of thorough cleaning and disinfection.
Question 2.
Ultrafiltration is defined as:
Answer: Fluid pushed through the semipermeable membrane
Rationale: Ultrafiltration is the process of removing excess fluid from blood by applying pressure across the dialyzer membrane.
Question 2.
Why is close monitoring of blood pressure and weight important for patients with acute kidney injury dialyzing in outpatient facilities?
Answer: Hypovolemia and hypotensive episodes can cause renal ischemia and can further damage the kidneys
Question 3.
The leading cause of chronic kidney disease for adults in the United States is:
Answer: Diabetes
Rationale: Diabetes is the #1 cause of CKD in U.S. adults, followed by hypertension. Both damage the small blood vessels in the kidneys over time.
Question 3.
A nephron is made up of:
Answer: A glomerulus and a tubule system
Rationale: Each nephron consists of a glomerulus (filtering unit) and a tubule (reabsorption/secretion system).
Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of uremia?
Answer: Elevated hematocrit
Rationale: Uremia typically causes ANEMIA (low hematocrit) due to decreased erythropoietin production, not elevated hematocrit. Other symptoms include itching, poor concentration, and appetite loss.
Question 3.
Mrs. Smith's dry weight is 62 kg. Her pretreatment weight is 67 kg. Priming saline is 240 mL, rinseback is 200 mL, medications are 100 mL, and she is not allowed fluids during treatment. What is the total fluid weight to be removed?
Answer: 5,540 mL
Rationale: Total weight gain = 67 kg - 62 kg = 5 kg = 5,000 mL. Add priming (240 mL), rinseback (200 mL), and medications (100 mL) = 5,000 + 240 + 200 + 100 = 5,540 mL total removal needed.
Question 3.
Based on Mrs. Smith's total fluid to be removed, what is the ultrafiltration rate per hour for her 4-hour treatment?
Answer: 1,385 mL/hr
Rationale: 5,540 mL ÷ 4 hours = 1,385 mL/hr.
Question 3.
Which of the following is a cause of hypotension during and after dialysis treatments?
Answer: Removing too much fluid
Rationale: Excessive ultrafiltration can deplete intravascular volume faster than refilling, causing hypotension. Other causes include high ultrafiltration rates and missed antihypertensive medications.
Question 3.
70 kg is the same as weighing how many pounds?
Answer: 154 pounds
Rationale: 1 kg = 2.2 lb. 70 × 2.2 = 154 lb.
Question 3.
Normal body pH is:
Answer: 7.35 - 7.
Rationale: The body maintains blood pH within this narrow, slightly alkaline range for optimal enzyme function.
Question 3.
One sign and symptom of fluid overload is:
Answer: Hypertension
Rationale: Excess fluid increases blood volume and cardiac output, raising blood pressure. Other signs include edema, shortness of breath, and crackles in lungs.
Question 3.
Question 3.
Decreasing the patient's prescribed blood flow rate affects the rate of:
Answer: Diffusion
Rationale: Lower blood flow reduces the concentration gradient and contact time, decreasing diffusive clearance.
Question 3.
Which of the following actions would increase diffusion during dialysis?
Answer: Using a bath that will provide a greater concentration gradient
Rationale: Increasing the difference between blood and dialysate concentrations enhances the driving force for diffusion.
Question 3.
Which of the following diffuses from the patient's blood during dialysis?
Answer: Urea
Rationale: Urea is a waste product that diffuses from blood into dialysate due to concentration gradient.
Question 3.
Ultrafiltration is influenced by:
Answer: Transmembrane pressure
Rationale: TMP is the pressure difference across the membrane that drives fluid removal.
Question 3.
The most common complication in peritoneal dialysis is:
Answer: Peritonitis
Rationale: Peritonitis (infection of the peritoneal cavity) is the most frequent and serious complication of PD, usually from touch contamination.
Question 3.
The dextrose used in the dialysate for peritoneal dialysis can cause:
Answer: Hyperglycemia
Rationale: Dextrose is absorbed from PD fluid into the bloodstream, potentially causing high blood sugar, especially in diabetics.
Question 3.
If a patient develops an infection post-transplant, the largest contributing factor would most likely be:
Answer: Immunosuppressive medication
Rationale: Transplant recipients take immunosuppressants to prevent rejection, which increases infection risk.
Question 3.
The most frequent cause of death in the first year post-transplant is:
Answer: Infection
Rationale: Due to high immunosuppression levels early post-transplant, infection is the leading cause of death in the first year.
