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Professional Practice Exam
Question 1. What is the primary purpose of a program charter? A) Define detailed work breakdown structures B) Authorize the program and outline high‑level scope and objectives C) List all project schedules within the program D) Detail the financial accounting procedures Answer: B Explanation: The charter formally authorizes the program and provides a high‑level description of scope, objectives, and governance. Question 2. Which selection criterion most directly links a program to corporate strategic goals? A) Resource availability B) Return on Investment (ROI) C) Strategic fit D) Vendor reputation Answer: C Explanation: Strategic fit evaluates how well the program aligns with the organization’s overarching strategy. Question 3. In Benefits Realization Management, who is responsible for sustaining a benefit after program closure? A) Program Manager
Professional Practice Exam
B) Project Sponsor C) Benefit Owner D) Change Control Board Answer: C Explanation: The Benefit Owner is accountable for ensuring the benefit continues to be realized post‑transition. Question 4. A dis‑benefit is best described as: A) A benefit that was not measured B) A negative consequence that must be mitigated C) A benefit realized earlier than planned D) An optional feature of the program Answer: B Explanation: Dis‑benefits are adverse outcomes that need identification and mitigation planning. Question 5. Which KPI would most appropriately measure strategic alignment of a program? A) Number of defects per release B) Percentage of budget variance C) Alignment index score against strategic objectives
Professional Practice Exam
Explanation: The decision‑making framework outlines processes and authority for budget changes. Question 8. Advanced stakeholder analysis classifies stakeholders based on: A) Their location and department only B) Influence, interest, power, and attitude C) Their salary grade D) Number of projects they are involved in Answer: B Explanation: Advanced analysis evaluates influence, interest, power, and attitude toward the program. Question 9. Executive communication should primarily focus on: A) Detailed technical specifications B) Value, risk, and strategic implications C) Daily task assignments D) Minor schedule adjustments Answer: B Explanation: Executives need high‑level information about value, risk, and strategic impact.
Professional Practice Exam
Question 10. Conflict between a functional manager and a project manager over shared resources is best resolved by: A) Ignoring the conflict until it resolves itself B) Escalating to the program sponsor for a decision C) Having the functional manager reassign resources unilaterally D) Letting the project manager hire external staff Answer: B Explanation: The program sponsor or steering committee provides authority to resolve resource conflicts. Question 11. Strategic sourcing in a program context primarily aims to: A) Reduce the number of projects B) Manage large, multi‑project contracts and vendor relationships C Answer: B Explanation: Strategic sourcing consolidates procurement for multiple projects to achieve scale and consistency. Question 12. During the program definition phase, the most critical output is: A) Detailed project schedules B) Formal program structure and constituent project list
Professional Practice Exam
Explanation: Closure includes transferring ownership of deliverables to the business. Question 15. Sequencing and phasing of component projects are used to: A) Randomly assign start dates B) Maximize incremental benefit delivery and manage dependencies C) Ensure each project has an identical timeline D) Reduce the number of required resources to zero Answer: B Explanation: Proper sequencing aligns project outputs to achieve timely benefits. Question 16. Resource conflict resolution at the program level is typically performed by: A) Individual project teams independently B) The program manager or steering committee with authority over resource allocation C) External consultants only D) The HR department without program input Answer: B Explanation: The program manager or steering committee decides on resource distribution across projects.
Professional Practice Exam
Question 17. Business readiness assessment evaluates: A) Market share growth potential B) Operational unit’s preparedness including training and process changes C) Vendor contract compliance only D) The number of benefits identified Answer: B Explanation: Readiness checks ensure the business can adopt new capabilities effectively. Question 18. Strategic risk differs from project risk because it: A) Affects only a single deliverable B) Impacts multiple projects and the program’s strategic objectives C) Is always low‑impact and low‑probability D Answer: B Explanation: Strategic risks have program‑wide impact, affecting multiple projects and overall objectives. Question 19. Integrated risk assessment at the program level involves: A) Ignoring individual project risks B) Consolidating and prioritizing risks from all component projects
Professional Practice Exam
Question 22. Program quality standards are intended to: A) Vary widely between component projects for flexibility B) Ensure consistent methodologies and processes across all projects C Answer: B Explanation: Uniform standards promote coherence and comparable quality across the program. Question 23. An independent program assurance review primarily serves to: A) Replace the program manager’s responsibilities B) Verify compliance with defined processes and assess effectiveness C Answer: B Explanation: Assurance reviews independently evaluate adherence to standards and performance. Question 24. CAPEX in program financial management refers to: A) Ongoing operational costs after implementation B) Capital expenditures for creating assets C Answer: B Explanation: CAPEX funds are used for acquiring or building long‑term assets. Question 25. OPEX in a program context covers:
Professional Practice Exam
A) Initial hardware purchases only B) Expenses required to operate and maintain new capabilities C Answer: B Explanation: OPEX includes day‑to‑day costs of running the delivered capabilities. Question 26. Budget aggregation at the program level means: A) Summing individual project budgets to form a single program budget B Answer: A Explanation: Aggregation consolidates project spends for overall financial control. Question 27. Financial reporting to the sponsor should be: A Answer: Transparent, accurate, and timely Explanation: Sponsors need reliable data to make informed decisions. Question 28. Strategic resource forecasting helps identify: A Answer: Long‑term skill shortages and dependencies Explanation: Forecasting anticipates future human resource needs across the program. Question 29. A shared resource pool is established to:
Professional Practice Exam
Question 33. The primary benefit of a benefit realization plan is to: A) Track daily task completion B) Assign accountability, metrics, and timelines for each benefit C) Create a list of all program risks D) Define the program’s organizational structure Answer: B Explanation: The plan clarifies who owns each benefit and how it will be measured. Question 34. Which of the following is a typical KPI for measuring program health? A) Number of meetings held per month B) Earned Value Management (EVM) forecast variance C) Employee satisfaction score only D) Number of emails sent Answer: B Explanation: EVM forecast variance indicates schedule and cost performance, reflecting health. Question 35. A steering committee’s authority typically includes:
Professional Practice Exam
A) Micromanaging project tasks B) Approving major scope changes and budget reallocations C) Writing detailed technical specifications D Answer: B Explanation: The committee makes high‑level decisions affecting the whole program. Question 36. In stakeholder analysis, a “high‑interest, low‑power” stakeholder should be: A) Managed closely and kept informed B Answer: Kept satisfied Explanation: High interest warrants regular communication, but low power means they don’t need decision authority. Question 37. Conflict management techniques that prioritize program objectives over departmental goals are known as: A Answer: Integrative negotiation Explanation: Integrative approaches seek win‑win outcomes aligned with overall program success. Question 38. Strategic alliances with external partners often require: A Answer: Joint governance structures
Professional Practice Exam
Explanation: Management reserves handle unforeseen strategic events beyond planned contingencies. Question 43. Escalated issues that involve policy changes are typically resolved at which level? A Answer: Executive or governance level Explanation: Policy matters exceed project authority and need senior decision‑making. Question 44. Quality audits in a program are performed to: A Answer: Verify adherence to defined quality standards across projects Explanation: Audits assess compliance and identify improvement opportunities. Question 45. When aggregating CAPEX and OPEX budgets, the program manager should: A Answer: Maintain separate tracking to ensure appropriate cost categorization Explanation: Distinguishing capital from operational costs supports accurate reporting. Question 46. Resource capacity planning that ignores skill‑mix considerations is likely to cause: A Answer: Bottlenecks and reduced delivery performance
Professional Practice Exam
Explanation: Skill mismatches hinder effective resource utilization. Question 47. A procurement strategy that treats each project independently may lead to: A Answer: Higher costs and inconsistent vendor performance Explanation: Lack of integration forfeits economies of scale. Question 48. Benefit ownership handover should occur: A Answer: At program closure, transferring responsibility to operational units Explanation: Formal handover ensures benefits are sustained post‑program. Question 49. A program’s strategic risk register includes a risk labeled “Regulatory change affecting all deliverables.” This risk is: A Answer: Program‑level because it impacts multiple projects Explanation: The risk’s scope spans the entire program. Question 50. Which document typically outlines the decision‑making authority for scope changes? A Answer: Governance charter or decision‑making framework Explanation: The framework defines who can approve scope modifications.
Professional Practice Exam
A Answer: A rolled‑up budget that reflects total spend and variance Explanation: A rolled‑up view enables overall financial control. Question 56. A risk response strategy that transfers risk to a vendor is called: A Answer: Transfer Explanation: Transfer shifts responsibility to a third party, often via contracts. Question 57. In benefits mapping, a “benefit dependency” indicates: A Answer: One benefit’s realization depends on another’s achievement Explanation: Dependencies must be managed to ensure sequential benefit delivery. Question 58. A program’s “change readiness” assessment typically evaluates: A Answer: Organizational culture, skills, and processes for absorbing change Explanation: Readiness determines the likelihood of successful adoption. Question 59. Which KPI would best indicate the effectiveness of stakeholder communication? A Answer: Stakeholder satisfaction rating Explanation: Satisfaction reflects how well communication meets stakeholder needs.
Professional Practice Exam
Question 60. When a program experiences scope creep across several projects, the appropriate response is to: A Answer: Activate the change control board to evaluate and approve changes Explanation: Formal change control ensures alignment and resource impact assessment. Question 61. The term “program governance structure” refers to: A Answer: The hierarchy of roles, responsibilities, and decision‑making bodies Explanation: Structure defines how oversight and authority are organized. Question 62. A benefit realization timeline that extends beyond program closure is known as: A Answer: Post‑implementation benefit schedule Explanation: Benefits may accrue after the program formally ends. Question 63. When aggregating risk exposure, the program manager should use: A Answer: A heat‑map that combines probability and impact across projects Explanation: Heat‑maps visualize overall risk severity.
