Calculus Exercises: Integration by Parts, Improper Integrals, and Series, Exams of Calculus

I have solved exam papers of Calculus. This is one of them, you can find all in my posts. Enjoy students. Some points of this solved exam paper are: Derivative, Evaluate, Derivative, Respect, Converges, Multiply, Calculate, Hummingbird, Slight Modification, Flying

Typology: Exams

2012/2013

Uploaded on 03/16/2013

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Answer Key for Exam 1
1(i) If we let w=x3then dw = 3x2dx, so dw
3=x2dx and we have
Zx2cos ¡x3¢dx =1
3Zcos w dw =1
3sin w+C=1
3sin ¡x3¢+C.
1(ii) If we let w=x2then dw = 2x dx, so dw
2=x dx and we have
Zx3cos ¡x2¢dx =Zx2cos ¡x2¢x dx =1
2Zwcos w dw.
Integrate this by parts with dv = cos w dw and u=w, so that du =dw and v= sin wand we have
Zx3cos ¡x2¢dx =1
2Zwcos w dw
=1
2µwsin wZsin w dw
=1
2(wsin w cos w) + C
=1
2(wsin w+ cos w) + C
=1
2£x2sin ¡x2¢+ cos ¡x2¢¤+C.
2(a) Integrate by parts with dv =exdx and u=x, so that v=exand du =dx and we have
Zxexdx =xexZexdx =xexex+C= (x1)ex+C.
2(b) By the product rule we have
d
dx xex=x(ex)0+ (x)0ex=xex+ 1 ·ex= (x+ 1)ex.
This is no surprise given the answer to (a).
2(c) If we integrate by parts with u=xexand dv =dx
(x+ 1)2= (x+ 1)2dx, then v=(x+ 1)1=1
x+ 1
and, by 2(b), du = (x+ 1)exdx. Then we have
Zxex
(x+ 1)2dx =xexµ1
x+ 1Zµ1
x+ 1 (x+ 1)exdx =xex
x+ 1 +Zexdx =xex
x+ 1 +ex+C.
Another method is to try the same trick as on the integral of the week #2. We can write
Zxex
(x+ 1)2dx =Z(x+ 1) 1
(x+ 1)2exdx =Zex
x+ 1 dx Zex
(x+ 1)2dx.
If we now integrate the first term on the right by parts with u=1
x+ 1 and dv =exdx then v=exand
du =1
(x+ 1)2and we get
Zxex
(x+ 1)2dx =µex
x+ 1 Zex
(x+ 1)2dxZex
(x+ 1)2dx.
pf3

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Answer Key for Exam 1

1(i) If we let w = x^3 then dw = 3x^2 dx, so dw 3 = x^2 dx and we have ∫ x^2 cos

x^3

dx =

cos w dw =

sin w + C =

sin

x^3

+ C.

1(ii) If we let w = x^2 then dw = 2x dx, so dw 2 = x dx and we have ∫ x^3 cos

x^2

dx =

x^2 cos

x^2

x dx =

w cos w dw.

Integrate this by parts with dv = cos w dw and u = w, so that du = dw and v = sin w and we have ∫ x^3 cos

x^2

dx =

w cos w dw

=

w sin w −

sin w dw

=^1

(w sin w − − cos w) + C

=^1 2 (w sin w + cos w) + C

=^1 2

[

x^2 sin

x^2

  • cos

x^2

)]

+ C.

2(a) Integrate by parts with dv = ex^ dx and u = x, so that v = ex^ and du = dx and we have ∫ xex^ dx = xex^ −

ex^ dx = xex^ − ex^ + C = (x − 1)ex^ + C.

2(b) By the product rule we have

d dx xex^ = x (ex)′^ + (x)′^ ex^ = xex^ + 1 · ex^ = (x + 1)ex.

This is no surprise given the answer to (a).

2(c) If we integrate by parts with u = xex^ and dv = dx (x + 1)^2 = (x + 1)−^2 dx, then v = −(x + 1)−^1 =

x + 1 and, by 2(b), du = (x + 1)ex^ dx. Then we have ∫ xex (x + 1)^2 dx = xex

x + 1

∫ (^

x + 1

(x + 1)ex^ dx = − xe

x x + 1

ex^ dx = − xe

x x + 1

  • ex^ + C.

Another method is to try the same trick as on the integral of the week #2. We can write ∫ (^) xex (x + 1)^2 dx =

∫ (^) (x + 1) − 1 (x + 1)^2 ex^ dx =

∫ (^) ex x + 1 dx −

∫ (^) ex (x + 1)^2 dx.

If we now integrate the first term on the right by parts with u = 1 x + 1 and dv = ex^ dx then v = ex^ and

du =

(x + 1)^2 and we get

∫ xex (x + 1)^2 dx =

ex x + 1

−ex (x + 1)^2 dx

ex (x + 1)^2 dx.

The last two integrals cancel, so we conclude that ∫ xex (x + 1)^2 dx = e

x x + 1

+ C.

This is the same as the previous answer since

− xe

x x + 1

  • ex^ = − xe

x x + 1

  • ex^ x^ + 1 x + 1 = ex^ x^ + 1^ −^ x x + 1 = e

x x + 1

  1. We can start by letting u = ln x, so that du = (^) x^1 dx = dxx. If x = e then u = ln e = 1, and if x = ∞ then u = ln ∞ = ∞, so we have (^) ∫ (^) ∞

e

dx x

[

1 + (ln x)^2

] =

1

du 1 + u^2

If you don’t remember what this equals you can look it up (or substitute u = tan θ); it’s an arctangent. So we have (^) ∫ (^) ∞

e

dx x

[

1 + (ln x)^2

] (^) = arctan u|∞ 1 = arctan ∞ − arctan 1 = π 2 −^

π 4 =^

π

Personally, I would have started by letting ln x = tan θ, but that would not be fundamentally different than what we did.

4(i) After we write (^) ∫ ∞ 1

dx 1 + ex^

1

dx 1 + ex

e−x e−x^

1

e−x^ dx e−x^ + 1

we can see that the substitution u = e−x^ + 1 is reasonable. Then du = −e−x^ dx, so that −du = e−x^ dx. If x = 1 then u = e−^1 + 1 = (^1) e + 1, and if x = ∞ then u = e−∞^ + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1, so we get

∫ (^) ∞

1

dx 1 + ex^ =

1

e−x^ dx e−x^ + 1

= −

1+ (^1) e

du u

=

∫ (^) 1+ (^1) e

1

du u = ln u|1+^

(^1) e 1 = ln

e

− ln 1

= ln

e

We could also rewrite the answer as ∫ (^) ∞

1

dx 1 + ex^ = ln

e + 1 e

= ln(e + 1) − ln e = ln(e + 1) − 1.

4(ii) Since 1 1 + ex^ is positive and decreasing for all x we know that

∑^ ∞ n=

1 + en^ and

1

dx 1 + ex^ are either both finite or both infinite.