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This certification exam preparation validates skills in IoT and edge computing solutions. Topics include edge architecture, device connectivity, data processing, security, analytics, and integration with enterprise systems for industrial and smart-environment use cases.
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Question 1. Which layer of the Cisco IoT reference model primarily handles communication between sensors and field gateways? A) Application layer B) Network layer C) Data acquisition layer D) Cloud layer Answer: C Explanation: The data acquisition layer (often called the Southbound layer) is responsible for gathering raw sensor data and sending it to gateways for further processing. Question 2. In an IoT topology, what is the primary function of a “Northbound” interface? A) Connects sensors to actuators B) Sends data from edge devices to the cloud or core network C) Provides power to field devices D) Manages local device firmware updates Answer: B Explanation: Northbound traffic moves upward in the hierarchy, delivering processed or raw data from edge/gateway devices toward centralized cloud services or core networks. Question 3. Which Cisco device is explicitly designed to run IOx applications on an industrial router platform? A) Catalyst 2960-X B) ISR 4321
D) Meraki MX Answer: C Explanation: The Cisco IR1101 is an industrial router that supports the Cisco IOx framework for hosting containerized edge applications. Question 4. Which of the following protocols is a low-power wide-area network (LPWAN) technology commonly used for long-range IoT deployments? A) IEEE 802.15. B) LoRaWAN C) MQTT D) SSH Answer: B Explanation: LoRaWAN is an LPWAN protocol optimized for long-range, low-power communication, making it suitable for remote sensor deployments. Question 5. When configuring a Cisco IOS device to enable IOx, which command sequence is required? A) iox enable → iox install → iox start B) iox enable → iox version → iox deploy C) iox enable → iox package → iox run D) iox enable → iox install → iox app start Answer: A
Question 8. Which of the following best describes a “store-and-forward” data handling pattern in IoT? A) Real-time streaming of data to the cloud B) Buffering data locally when connectivity is lost and forwarding when the link restores C) Immediate deletion of data after processing D) Encrypting data before transmission only Answer: B Explanation: Store-and-forward temporarily stores sensor data during network outages and forwards it once connectivity resumes, ensuring no data loss. Question 9. In a resource-constrained edge device, which metric is most critical when deciding whether to run a new containerized application? A) Number of open TCP ports B) CPU utilization and available RAM C) Length of the device’s hostname D) Number of VLANs configured Answer: B Explanation: Edge devices have limited compute resources; CPU and memory availability directly affect the ability to host additional containers. Question 10. Which Cisco IOx command is used to package a Dockerfile-based application for deployment? A) iox package create B) iox build
C) ioxapp pack D) ioxclient pkg Answer: D Explanation: The ioxclient pkg command creates a .pkg file from a Dockerfile, preparing the application for transfer to an IOx-enabled device. Question 11. Which of the following statements about MQTT QoS level 2 is true? A) It guarantees at most once delivery. B) It guarantees exactly once delivery with a four-step handshake. C) It guarantees at least once delivery without duplication. D) It does not support retained messages. Answer: B Explanation: MQTT QoS 2 provides exactly-once delivery through a four-step handshake (PUB-REC, PUB-REL, PUB-COMP). Question 12. When integrating Cisco Edge Intelligence (EFM) with Azure IoT Hub, which protocol is most commonly used for the upstream connection? A) HTTP/1. B) MQTT over TLS C) CoAP D) FTP Answer: B Explanation: Azure IoT Hub natively supports MQTT over TLS, providing secure, efficient telemetry transmission from edge devices.
B) Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine) C) Cisco Stealthwatch D) Cisco AMP for Endpoints Answer: B Explanation: Cisco ISE can profile devices, enforce policies, and assess the security posture of IoT endpoints as they connect to the network. Question 16. **What is the primary purpose of a PLC in an OT environment? ** A) To provide Wi-Fi connectivity to sensors B) To execute deterministic control logic for machinery and processes C) To act as a DNS server for edge devices D) To store large volumes of historical sensor data Answer: B Explanation: Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs) run real-time, deterministic control programs that manage industrial equipment. Question 17. Which wireless standard operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band and supports mesh networking for smart city deployments? A) Wi-SUN B. 5G NR C) Zigbee (IEEE 802.15.4) D) Bluetooth Classic Answer: A
Explanation: Wi-SUN (based on IEEE 802.15.4g) is designed for large-scale mesh networks in the 2.4 GHz band, ideal for smart city IoT. Question 18. When troubleshooting a sensor that fails to register with an IOx gateway, which log file is most useful? A) syslog B) ioxd.log C) boot.log D) ntp.log Answer: B Explanation: The ioxd.log file contains events related to the IOx runtime, including sensor registration attempts and failures. Question 19. Which of the following best describes a “micro-service” architecture in edge data services? A) A monolithic binary that runs on the device B) Small, independent services that communicate via APIs, each handling a specific function C) A single Docker container that processes all sensor data D) A set of static HTML pages served from the edge device Answer: B Explanation: Micro-services break functionality into discrete, loosely coupled services that can be independently deployed and scaled. Question 20. In Cisco IOx, what is the effect of the ioxapp start command?
Answer: A Explanation: OPC-UA defines a common information model for industrial devices, enabling interoperable data exchange across vendors. Question 23. Which Dockerfile instruction is used to specify the base operating system image for an IOx application? A) FROM B) RUN C) COPY D) ENTRYPOINT Answer: A Explanation: The FROM directive defines the base image (e.g., alpine, ubuntu) that the container builds upon. Question 24. In MQTT, what is the purpose of a “retained message”? A) To guarantee exactly-once delivery B) To store the last known good value on the broker for new subscribers C) To encrypt payloads automatically D) To limit message size to 128 bytes Answer: B Explanation: A retained message is kept by the broker and delivered immediately to any client that later subscribes to the topic. Question 25. Which CI/CD tool can directly push an IOx package to a Cisco IR1101 using the ioxclient API?
A) Jenkins B) Microsoft Word C) Adobe Photoshop D) Wireshark Answer: A Explanation: Jenkins (or similar automation servers) can invoke ioxclient commands via scripts to automate package deployment to IOx devices. Question 26. What is the main security benefit of using TLS-mutual authentication between an edge gateway and a cloud broker? A) Only the gateway validates the broker’s certificate. B) Both parties verify each other’s certificates, ensuring both are trusted. C) It eliminates the need for firewalls. D) It speeds up data transmission. Answer: B Explanation: Mutual TLS requires both client and server to present valid certificates, providing strong two-way authentication. Question 27. Which Cisco feature can be used to isolate OT traffic from IT traffic on the same physical switch? A) VLAN segmentation B) Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) C) Link-layer discovery protocol (LLDP) D) CDP Answer: A
A) Removing duplicate network cables. B) Selecting only relevant sensor data to forward, discarding noise locally. C) Encrypting all data before transmission. D) Converting analog signals to digital. Answer: B Explanation: Edge filtering processes raw data locally to extract useful information, reducing bandwidth and storage requirements. Question 31. Which Cisco tool provides a graphical interface for monitoring and managing IOx applications across multiple devices? A) Cisco Prime Infrastructure B) Cisco IoT Operations Dashboard (formerly Edge Intelligence) C) Cisco Packet Tracer D) Cisco AnyConnect Answer: B Explanation: The Cisco IoT Operations Dashboard offers centralized visibility and control of IOx deployments. Question 32. **When using LoRaWAN, what is the role of a “network server”? ** A) To generate the radio frequency signals. B) To manage device activation, de-duplication, and forward decrypted payloads to application servers. C) To provide DNS resolution for end devices. D) To store firmware updates for routers.
Answer: B Explanation: The LoRaWAN network server handles device join procedures, security, duplicate message removal, and forwards data to the application layer. Question 33. Which of the following is a key difference between AMQP and MQTT? A) AMQP provides built-in message queuing and acknowledgments; MQTT is purely publish/subscribe. B) MQTT supports transactions; AMQP does not. C) AMQP is limited to 256 byte payloads. D) MQTT requires TLS; AMQP cannot use encryption. Answer: A Explanation: AMQP offers richer messaging patterns, including queues and acknowledgments, whereas MQTT focuses on lightweight pub/sub. Question 34. What is the primary reason for using a “gateway” in an industrial IoT deployment? A) To replace PLCs entirely. B) To translate protocols, aggregate data, and provide security before sending data to the cloud. C) To act as a Wi-Fi access point for office laptops. D) To store all historical sensor data indefinitely. Answer: B Explanation: Gateways bridge heterogeneous field protocols, perform edge processing, and enforce security policies prior to cloud transmission.
C) Radar chart D) Bar chart Answer: B Explanation: A line chart clearly shows continuous changes over time, making it ideal for temperature trend analysis. Question 38. In a CI/CD pipeline, which stage should perform static code analysis for security vulnerabilities in an IoT application? A) Deploy B) Build C) Test D) Release Answer: C Explanation: The test stage commonly includes static application security testing (SAST) to detect vulnerabilities before deployment. Question 39. Which Cisco product provides DNS-level protection against malicious domains for IoT devices? A) Cisco Umbrella B) Cisco ISE C) Cisco Meraki D) Cisco Catalyst 9000 Answer: A Explanation: Cisco Umbrella offers cloud-delivered DNS security, blocking requests to known malicious domains.
Question 40. What is the purpose of a “digital twin” in an IoT solution? A) To duplicate the physical device’s firmware on the cloud. B) To create a virtual replica of a physical asset for simulation and analytics. C) To mirror network traffic for backup. D) To provide a second physical sensor for redundancy. Answer: B Explanation: A digital twin mirrors the state and behavior of a real asset, enabling predictive analysis and remote monitoring. Question 41. Which of the following is a characteristic of a real-time operating system (RTOS) used in embedded microcontrollers? A) Non-deterministic task scheduling B) Predictable, bounded response times for critical tasks C. Unlimited memory allocation D. Graphical user interface support only Answer: B Explanation: An RTOS guarantees deterministic timing, ensuring critical tasks meet strict latency requirements. Question 42. When configuring a Cisco Industrial Ethernet switch for OT traffic, which feature helps prevent loops without impacting time-critical traffic? A) Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) with portfast enabled on edge ports B. EtherChannel with LACP
Question 45. Which protocol would you choose for firmware updates over a low-bandwidth satellite link? A) FTP B) CoAP C) SMB D. Telnet Answer: B Explanation: CoAP is designed for constrained networks and supports blockwise transfers, making it suitable for satellite links. Question 46. What is the effect of enabling “Device Certificate Authentication” on a Cisco ISE policy for IoT devices? A) Devices are authenticated solely based on MAC address. B) Devices must present a valid X.509 certificate to gain network access. C) Devices are granted admin privileges automatically. D) Devices bypass all firewall rules. Answer: B Explanation: Certificate authentication requires a trusted device certificate, providing strong identity verification. Question 47. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Docker containers for edge applications? A) They require a full hypervisor. B) They provide isolation, portability, and fast startup times.
C) They eliminate the need for any OS on the device. D. They guarantee zero security vulnerabilities. Answer: B Explanation: Containers encapsulate dependencies, run efficiently on minimal resources, and can be moved across devices. Question 48. When mapping sensor data to the OPC-UA information model, which node class represents a measurable value? A) Object B) Variable C) DataType D) Method Answer: B Explanation: OPC-UA Variable nodes hold the actual data values (e.g., temperature, pressure). Question 49. Which Cisco feature can be used to enforce rate limiting on telemetry traffic from edge devices? A) Policing (policy-map) with a police command B. CDP C. LLDP D. VTP Answer: A Explanation: A policing policy can cap the bandwidth used by telemetry streams, preventing saturation of the network.