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Question 1. Which legislative act first introduced a national health insurance program for the elderly in the United States? A) Social Security Act B) Medicare Act of 1965 C) Affordable Care Act D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Answer: B Explanation: The Medicare Act of 1965 created a federal health insurance program for people 65 and older, marking the first large-scale national health insurance for seniors. Question 2. In the transition from the medical model to the wellness model, which of the following is emphasized most? A) Disease-specific treatment B) Preventive care and lifestyle modification C) Hospital-based interventions D) Pharmaceutical innovation Answer: B Explanation: The wellness model focuses on prevention, health promotion, and lifestyle changes rather than solely treating disease after it occurs. Question 3. Which level of care is primarily responsible for routine health maintenance and chronic disease management? A) Primary care B) Secondary care C) Tertiary care
D) Quaternary care Answer: A Explanation: Primary care provides first-contact services, preventive care, and ongoing management of chronic conditions. Question 4. Which organization is chiefly responsible for disease surveillance and outbreak investigation in the United States? A) World Health Organization (WHO) B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) C) National Institutes of Health (NIH) D) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Answer: B Explanation: The CDC monitors public health threats, conducts surveillance, and coordinates responses to outbreaks in the U.S. Question 5. Compared with the United Kingdom’s National Health Service, the U.S. health system is characterized by: A) Universal coverage for all citizens B) Predominantly single-payer financing C) Higher per-capita health expenditures with lower life expectancy D) Strict government price controls on pharmaceuticals Answer: C Explanation: The U.S. spends more per person on health care yet has lower average life expectancy than the UK, which has a universal single-payer system.
D) Point-of-Service (POS) Answer: B Explanation: HMOs use a gatekeeping system where primary-care physicians must refer patients to specialists. Question 9. Medicare Part D provides coverage for: A) Hospital inpatient stays B) Outpatient physician services C) Prescription drugs D) Long-term nursing home care Answer: C Explanation: Medicare Part D is the prescription drug benefit component of Medicare. Question 10. The “Triple Aim” framework does NOT include which of the following objectives? A) Improving the patient experience of care B) Reducing per-capita health-care costs C) Expanding the number of hospital beds D) Improving population health Answer: C Explanation: The Triple Aim focuses on experience, health outcomes, and cost; expanding hospital capacity is not a stated aim.
Question 11. An Accountable Care Organization (ACO) is primarily designed to: A) Increase the number of specialists in a network B) Encourage providers to share financial risk and rewards for quality outcomes C) Provide unlimited services without cost sharing D) Replace traditional fee-for-service billing entirely Answer: B Explanation: ACOs hold providers jointly accountable for cost and quality, sharing savings when targets are met. Question 12. Which legal doctrine holds health-care providers liable for failure to obtain a patient’s informed consent? A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Battery C) Negligence D) Informed consent doctrine Answer: D Explanation: The informed consent doctrine requires providers to disclose relevant information; failure can be a basis for liability. Question 13. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) primarily protects: A) Provider malpractice claims B) Patient privacy and security of health information C) Insurance claim processing times D) Physician licensing standards
Question 16. Which ethical issue involves the allocation of scarce donor organs? A) Euthanasia B) Informed consent C) Organ transplantation ethics D) Genetic testing Answer: C Explanation: Organ allocation raises ethical questions about fairness, priority, and criteria for receiving scarce organs. Question 17. Scope of practice laws primarily regulate: A) Hospital construction standards B) The tasks that health-care professionals are legally permitted to perform C) Insurance premium rates D) Patient satisfaction scores Answer: B Explanation: Scope of practice defines the procedures and activities a professional may legally perform based on training and licensure. Question 18. Which technology standard is intended to improve interoperability of electronic health records? A) HL7 v B) DICOM C) FHIR (Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources) D) ICD- 10
Answer: C Explanation: FHIR provides a modern framework for exchanging health-care data across systems. Question 19. A “data silo” in health-information systems refers to: A) A cloud-based storage solution B) A repository of data that cannot be easily shared with other systems C) An encrypted patient portal D) A type of artificial intelligence algorithm Answer: B Explanation: Data silos isolate information, hindering interoperability and comprehensive patient care. Question 20. Which of the following best describes telemedicine? A) In-person home visits by physicians B) Remote delivery of health-care services via electronic communication C) Use of robotic surgery in the operating room D) Distribution of printed health brochures Answer: B Explanation: Telemedicine utilizes video, phone, or other electronic means to provide clinical services at a distance. Question 21. Wearable health devices most commonly monitor which of the following parameters? A) Blood type
Question 24. Which cyber-threat involves encrypting a health system’s data and demanding payment for decryption? A) Phishing B) Ransomware C) Denial-of-service attack D) Man-in-the-middle Answer: B Explanation: Ransomware locks data and extorts victims for a decryption key. Question 25. Social determinants of health (SDOH) include all EXCEPT: A) Education level B) Genetic mutations C) Housing stability D) Access to nutritious food Answer: B Explanation: Genetic factors are biological determinants, not social determinants. Question 26. Implicit bias in clinical practice most often leads to: A) Uniform treatment of all patients B) Systematic differences in diagnosis or treatment based on patient characteristics C) Increased patient satisfaction across the board D) Decreased health-care costs
Answer: B Explanation: Implicit bias can cause unconscious preferential treatment, affecting outcomes. Question 27. Which strategy improves communication with patients who have limited English proficiency? A) Using only medical jargon B) Providing written instructions in English only C) Employing professional medical interpreters D) Relying on family members for translation Answer: C Explanation: Professional interpreters ensure accurate, confidential communication. Question 28. The “digital divide” in health care refers to: A) Differences in technology adoption between hospitals and clinics B) Unequal access to digital health tools and internet connectivity among populations C) Variation in electronic health record software vendors D) Disparities in the number of smartphones sold Answer: B Explanation: The digital divide describes gaps in access to technology that affect health-care delivery. Question 29. Which of the following is a core component of team-based care? A) Physicians working independently of other staff
Explanation: Interrupting undermines rapport; therapeutic communication encourages listening and clarification. Question 32. Health literacy is essential because: A) It guarantees patients will follow all orders perfectly B) Low health literacy is linked to poorer health outcomes and higher costs C) It eliminates the need for informed consent D. It replaces the need for clinical documentation Answer: B Explanation: Patients who understand health information are more likely to engage in self-care and adhere to treatment. Question 33. Critical thinking in a high-pressure emergency department most directly supports: A) Faster chart completion B) Accurate, rapid decision-making that reduces medical errors C. Increased paperwork D) Longer patient wait times Answer: B Explanation: Critical thinking enables clinicians to assess information quickly and act safely under stress. Question 34. Which pandemic highlighted the importance of personal protective equipment (PPE) supply chain resilience? A) H1N1 (2009)
B. SARS (2003)
C) COVID-19 (2020)
D) MERS (2012)
Answer: C Explanation: COVID-19 caused unprecedented global demand for PPE, exposing vulnerabilities in manufacturing and distribution. Question 35. Antibiotic resistance is primarily driven by: A. Overuse of antibiotics in human medicine and agriculture B) Strict infection-control policies C) Increased vaccination rates D) Use of antiviral medications Answer: A Explanation: Excessive antibiotic exposure selects for resistant organisms, making infections harder to treat. Question 36. Precision medicine differs from traditional medicine by: A) Treating all patients with the same standardized protocol B) Tailoring prevention and treatment strategies based on individual genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors C) Ignoring patient preferences D) Using only generic medications Answer: B
B. Conducting syndromic surveillance and issuing public alerts C) Billing insurance companies for emergency care D) Managing hospital cafeteria menus Answer: B Explanation: Public health agencies monitor for unusual disease patterns and communicate risks to protect the population. Question 40. The term “population health” most accurately refers to: A. The health status of a single individual B) The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of those outcomes within the group C) The financial performance of a health-care organization D) The number of hospital beds per capita Answer: B Explanation: Population health assesses health outcomes across groups and examines disparities within them. Question 41. Which financing model incentivizes health systems to reduce readmission rates? A) Fee-for-service B) Capitation with quality bonuses C. Unlimited fee schedule D) Per-procedure billing Answer: B
Explanation: Capitation pays a fixed amount per enrollee; bonuses for lower readmissions encourage better transitional care. Question 42. In the United States, Medicaid eligibility is primarily based on: A) Age over 65 only B) Income level and, in many states, categorical criteria such as disability or pregnancy C) Employment status alone D) Ownership of private insurance Answer: B Explanation: Medicaid is a means-tested program, with eligibility determined by income and specific qualifying conditions. Question 43. Which of the following best describes a “high-deductible health plan (HDHP)”? A. Low out-of-pocket costs for all services B) A plan with a high annual deductible that can be paired with a health-savings account (HSA) C) Unlimited coverage for specialist visits D) Mandatory referral for all services Answer: B Explanation: HDHPs require members to pay more upfront before insurance kicks in, often paired with an HSA for tax-advantaged savings. Question 44. The “patient’s bill of rights” most commonly includes the right to: A. Choose any physician regardless of network restrictions
Explanation: Opportunity cost measures what is sacrificed (e.g., other services) when resources are devoted to one use. Question 47. Which of the following statements about “tele-ICU” is true? A. It replaces all bedside nurses with remote staff B. It provides remote monitoring and specialist support to ICU patients in multiple hospitals C. It is only used for outpatient follow-up D. It eliminates the need for on-site physicians Answer: B Explanation: Tele-ICU connects intensivists to remote units, offering real-time oversight and decision support. Question 48. The “patient-centered medical home” model primarily aims to: A. Centralize all care in a single large hospital B. Provide coordinated, comprehensive primary care that is accessible and continuous C. Increase the number of specialist referrals per patient D. Reduce the role of nurses in care delivery Answer: B Explanation: The PCMH model emphasizes coordinated, continuous, and accessible primary care with a focus on the patient’s whole health. Question 49. Which coding system is used primarily for reporting diagnoses in the United States? A. CPT
B) ICD- 10 - CM
C) SNOMED CT
D) LOINC
Answer: B Explanation: ICD- 10 - CM (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification) is the standard diagnostic coding system in the U.S. Question 50. The “bundle payment” model in health-care reimbursement is designed to: A. Pay separately for each individual service rendered B. Provide a single, comprehensive payment for all services related to a specific episode of care C. Increase patient out-of-pocket costs D. Eliminate all quality metrics Answer: B Explanation: Bundle payments cover all services for a defined episode (e.g., joint replacement), encouraging efficiency and coordination. Question 51. Which of the following is a major barrier to the adoption of electronic health records (EHRs) in low-resource settings? A. Lack of interest from clinicians B. High upfront costs and limited IT infrastructure C. Overabundance of interoperable standards D. Excessive patient demand
