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DYSRHYTHMIA BASIC TEST 2026 MASTER
STUDY EXAM
◉ The patient who has recently been experiencing runs of ventricular tachycardia suddenly loses consciousness. The patient is defibrillated, and the rate returns as the following. What should the nurse do first? A) Begin compressions B) Shock the client again immediately C) Prepare for intubation D) Administer adenosine. Answer: Answer: A. Following defibrillation, CPR is immediately initiated if a perfusable rhythm is not initiated. The client may need to be shocked again, but chest compressions must begin first. ◉ A patient with cardiomyopathy has been given an ICD. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to see in the MAR for this patient? A) Warfarin B) Cardizem C) Nitroglycerin D) Digoxin. Answer: Answer: B. Antiarrhythmic medications are prescribed with the use of an ICD in order to prevent the tachycardic
(or other deadly arrhythmia) from occurring in the first place. This makes sure that the ICD is used only when absolutely necessary. ◉ The patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes has the following rhythm strip. The patient's vitals are as follows: BP 145/89, HR 90, SpO2 95%, RR 19. Which of the following does the nurse expect to do at this time? a) Prepare the client for cardioversion STAT b) Begin administering anticoagulants c) Grab the crash cart for administration of adenosine d) Teach the client about possibility of pacemaker installation. Answer: Answer: B. Atrial flutter places the client at high risk for development of clot formation in the atria. Because the client is stable at this time, cardioversion or adenosine would not be performed at this time. Before cardioversion can occur in a patient, anticoagulant therapy should be begun at least 48 hours beforehand if possible. ◉ The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to the patient with the following rhythm which is symptomatic. What should the nurse plan on having in the patient room? a) Physician b) Crash cart c) IV pump d) EKG monitor
d) Prepare to administer Amiodorone. Answer: Answer: B. With SVT (Supraventricular tachycardia), the first thing to do would be to instruct the pt. to perform the Valsalva maneuver by bearing down. ◉ A group of nursing students are discussing atrial flutter. These students recognize that which of the following are seen with atrial flutter? Select all that apply:
- Ventricular rate of 220-300 bpm.
- Regular rhythm
- Saw-tooth pattern
- Measurable PR interval
- Long QRS interval. Answer: Answer(s): 2, 3 The ATRIAL rate is 220-300 bpm. Ventricular is about 75-150. The rhythm is regular, with the P wave appearing as little flutter or a "saw tooth pattern". The PR interval is not measurable r/t this saw- tooth P wave. The QRS is normal. ◉ A nursing student is aware that which of the following is the treatment for unstable atrial flutter?
- Adenosine (Adenocard) 6 mg rapid IVP.
- Cardioversion with adjacent Heparin therapy
- Defibrillation STAT followed by CPR.
- Altemose 3 mg IVP over 1-2 seconds.. Answer: Answer: 2)
Cardioversion is used if the patient is unstable. Anticoagulants are used if the arrhythmia has stuck around for 48 hr +. Adenosine may be used with a narrow QRS and regular RR interval. I made up Altemose. ◉ A nurse working on a CVT unit receives report from day shift. After receiving report, which patient should the nurse see first?
- A 23-year-old professional tennis player with a HR of 47 bpm.
- A 69-year-old male with atrial fibrillation who has new onset confusion.
- A 72-year-old female with atrial flutter who reports feeling unusually tired today and yesterday.
- A 33-year-old female with sinus tachycardia who is asking for her at-home Metoprolol.. Answer: Answer: 2) Patients with a-fib are at risk for pulmonary and systemic emboli, and new onset of confusion may indicate a stroke in this patient. Patients with atrial flutter may feel more tired some days than others. ◉ A nurse on a CVT unit views the monitor and sees the patient in room 452 has just begun having occasional PVCs. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Check on the patient
◉ The nurse in the intensive care unit (ICU) hears an alarm sound in the patient's room. Arriving in the room, the patient is unresponsive, without a pulse, and a flat line on the monitor. What is the first action by the nurse? a) Administer atropine 0.5 mg b) Administer epinephrine c) Defibrillate with 360 joules d) Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Answer: Answer: d) We cannot defibrillate asystole. A ◉ A group of nursing students are studying AV blocks and ask their instructor, "what causes a first-degree block?" The nursing instructor responds that which of the following can cause a first- degree block: Select all that apply
- Diarrhea
- Chronic constipation
- Diltiazem
- Digoxin
- Metoprolol. Answer: Answer(s): 2, 3, 4, 5 Diarrhea will not stimulate a vagal response, but vomiting can. Chronic constipation will cause a consistent vagal response. Digoxin,
beta blockers, and calcium channel blockers can all contribute to first degree blocks. Relate this to bradycardia. ◉ A 26-year-old client with atrial fibrillation that has not responded to medication therapy has arrived at the hospital for an elective cardioversion. Which of the following patient statements most concerns the nurse?
- "I can't wait to stop taking this Coumadin. I've been on this crap for weeks now."
- "I'm starving. I haven't eaten anything in 3 hours."
- "I feel really short of breath, can I lie down?"
- "I haven't taken my Digoxin since 9 o'clock last night. Is that okay?". Answer: Answer: 3 Patients with atrial fibrillation are at incredibly high risk for clots, even with anticoagulation therapy. Shortness of breath could indicate a PE, and this should be immediately investigated by the nurse. The patient should be NPO for at least 4 hr. prior to the procedure related to anesthesia use, but this is not as urgent of a concern. The patient should also withhold Digoxin therapy for 48 hours to ensure that, once cardioverted, NSR returns. ◉ Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate pacemaker failure? a) excessive thirst
implantation. Pulses are a good indicator of whether the pacemaker is supplying the body with enough cardiac output. ◉ A. Answer: A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 80 complexes per minute. The PR interval is 0. second, and the QRS complex measures 0.08 second. The nurse interprets this rhythm is: A) Normal sinus rhythm B) Sinus bradycardia C) Sinus tachycardia D) Sinus dysrhythmia ◉ D Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Client's frequently experience a feeling of impending death. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhythmic medications or magnesium sulfate, cardioversion (client awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness), Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular defibrillation at any time.. Answer: A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. A nurse is most concerned with this dysrhythmia because:
A) It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom. B) It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. C) It is almost impossible to convert to a normal sinus rhythm. D) It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. ◉ BCD Amiodarone causes prolongation of the QT interval, which can precipitate dysrhythmia. Antidysrhythmic medications cause changes in cardiac rhythm and rate; therefore monitoring of heart rate and rhythm is needed.Electrolyte depletion, specifically potassium and magnesium, may predispose to further dysrhythmia. Although it is always important to monitor vital signs and urine output, these assessments are not specific to amiodarone.. Answer: The nurse administers amiodarone (Cordarone) to a client with ventricular tachycardia. Which monitoring by the nurse is necessary with this drug? Select all that apply. a. Respiratory rate b. QT interval c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Magnesium level e. Urine output
a. Heparin b. Atropine c. Dobutamine d. Magnesium sulfate ◉ D The client is displaying sinus rhythm with first-degree atrioventicular heart block; this is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment. Atropine is used in emergency treatment of symptomatic bradycardia. This client has normal vital signs. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, which is, by definition, an irregular rhythm. Clonidine is used in the treatment of hypertension; a side effect is bradycardia.. Answer: The nurse is caring for a client on a telemetry unit with a regular heart rhythm and rate of 60; a P wave precedes each QRS complex, and the PR interval is 0.24 second. Additional vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 118/68, respiratory rate 16, and temperature 98.8° F. The following medications are available on the medication record. What action should the nurse take? a. Administer atropine. b. Administer digoxin. c. Administer clonidine. d. Continue to monitor.
◉ A
This client has a stable, asymptomatic dysrhythmia, which usually requires no treatment; this client can be managed by a nurse with less cardiac dysrhythmia training.. Answer: You are the charge nurse on the telemetry unit and are responsible for making client assignments. Which client would be appropriate to assign to the float RN from the medical-surgical unit? a. The 64-year-old admitted for weakness who has a first-degree heart block with a heart rate of 58 beats/min b. The 71-year-old admitted for heart failure who is short of breath and has a heart rate of 120 to 130 beats/min c. The 88-year-old admitted with an elevated troponin level who is hypotensive with a heart rate of 96 beats/min d. The 92-year-old admitted with chest pain who has premature ventricular complexes and a heart rate of 102 beats/min ◉ C. Answer: A client with atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response has received medication to slow the ventricular rate. The pulse is now 88. For which additional therapy does the nurse plan? a. Synchronized cardioversion b. Electrophysiology studies (EPS) c. Anticoagulation
b. Establish IV access. c. Place an oral airway and ventilate. d. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). ◉ D Clients at risk for bradydysrhythmias should avoid bearing down or straining during a bowel movement; the Valsalva maneuver can cause bradycardia. Taking a stool softener helps to prevent this.. Answer: In teaching clients at risk for bradydysrhythmias, what information does the nurse include? a. "Avoid potassium-containing foods." b. "Stop smoking and avoid caffeine." c. "Take nitroglycerin for a slow heartbeat." d. "Use a stool softener." ◉ C A P wave is generated by the SA node and represents atrial depolarization.. Answer: The nurse is determining whether the client's rhythm strip demonstrates proper firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node. Which waveform indicates proper function of the SA node? a. The QRS complex is present.
b. The PR interval is 0.24 second. c. A P wave precedes every QRS complex. d. The ST segment is elevated. ◉ ABE The Valsalva maneuver stimulates the vagus nerve, causing bradycardia. Inferior wall MI is a cause of bradycardia and heart blocks. Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem may cause bradycardia.. Answer: The nurse is caring for a client who has developed a bradycardia. Which possible causes should the nurse investigate? Select all that apply a. Bearing down for a bowel movement b. Possible inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI) c. Client stating that he just had a cup of coffee d. Client becoming emotional when visitors arrived e. Diltiazem (Cardizem) administered an hour ago ◉ D Sinus rhythm presents with heart rates from 60 to 100 beats/min; by definition, the bradydysrhythmia has resolved.. Answer: How does the nurse recognize that atropine has produced a positive outcome for the client with bradycardia?
◉ A
Defibrillation interrupts the heart rhythm and allows normal pacemaker cells to take over: in asystole, there is no rhythm to interrupt; therefore this intervention is not used.. Answer: The nurse is caring for a client with advanced heart failure who develops asystole. The nurse corrects the new graduate when the graduate offers to perform which intervention? a. Defibrillation b. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) c. Administration of atropine d. Administration of oxygen ◉ B. Answer: The nurse receives in report that the client with a pacemaker has experienced loss of capture. Which situation is consistent with this? a. The pacemaker spike falls on the T wave. b. Pacemaker spikes are noted, but no P wave or QRS complex follows. c. The heart rate is 42, and no pacemaker spikes are seen on the rhythm strip. d. The client demonstrates hiccups.
◉ B
No pressure should be applied over the generator site.. Answer: Which teaching is essential for a client who has had a permanent pacemaker inserted? a. Avoid talking on a cell phone. b. Avoid contact sports and blows to the chest. c. Avoid sexual activity. d. Do not take tub baths. ◉ C. Answer: The client's rhythm strip shows a heart rate of 76 beats/min, one P wave occurring before each QRS complex, a PR interval measuring 0.24 second, and a QRS complex measuring 0. second. How does the nurse interpret this rhythm strip? a. Normal sinus rhythm b. Sinus bradycardia c. Sinus rhythm with first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block d. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions ◉ D. Answer: The nurse is teaching the client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further discharge education?
