Download ECSA102 BLOB BCA 2026 COMPLETE EXAM STUDY GUIDE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
ECSA102 BLOB BCA 2026 COMPLETE EXAM
STUDY GUIDE
◉ 4) Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor? a. a tattoo 5 months ago b. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously d. confirmed positive test for HbsAg 10 yrs. earlier. Answer: d. A positive test for HbsAg at any time is an indefinite deferral. ◉ 6) Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor:
- age: 16
- temperature: 99.0F (37.2C)
- Hct: 36%
- history: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion? a. none b. 1 c. 2
d. 3. Answer: b.
- The Hct must be >38%
- A donor may be 16 unless state law differs.
- Temperature must not exceed 99.5F/37.5C
- blood pressure must be <180 mmHg systolic and <100 mmHg diastolic
- pulse 50-100 unless an athlete [which can be lower].
- Toxoids and vaccines from synthetic or killed sources have no deferral= more than 5 months.) ◉ 8) Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution of: a. hypochlorite b. isopropyl alcohol c. 10% acetone d. PVP iodine complex. Answer: d
- The scrub must use iodine, eg, PVP iodine complex. Notes: Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the area cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% isopropyl alcohol. ◉ 9) All donors blood testing must include: a. complete Rh phenotype b. anti-CMV testing
◉ 13) The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is: a. anti-HBc b. anti-HIV-1, c. HbsAg d. ALT. Answer: b The causative agent for AIDS is the human immunodeficiency virus types 1 and 2. ◉ 14) A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV detection is: a. latex agglutination b. RIA c. TLC d. ELISA. Answer: d The enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay [ELISA] method:
- very sensitive method employed to screen donors for markers of transfusion-transmitted viruses. ◉ 16) A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 am. The expiration time for each aliquot is: a. 4 pm the same day b. 8 pm the same say
c. 8 am the next morning d. the original date of the unsplit unit. Answer: d Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product. ◉ 18) When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temps. must be recorded: a. once a day b. twice a day c. every 4 hours d. every hour. Answer: c If storage devices do not have automated temperature recording, temperature must be manually monitored every 4 hours.) ◉ 19) Which of the following is the correct storage temp for the component listed: a. Cryo AHF = 4 C b. FFP = - 20 C c. Frozen RBC = - 40 C d. Platelets = 37 C. Answer: b Fresh Frozen Plasma is stored at -18 C or below for 12 months.
(Red Blood Cells are stored at 1-6C.) ◉ 23) If the seal is entered on a unit of RBCs stored at 1 C to 6 C, what is the maximum allowable storage period in hours? a. 6 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72. Answer: b If the seal is broken during processing, components are considered to be prepared in an open system, rather than a closed system. Note: The expiration time for Red Blood Cells in an open system is 24 hours ◉ 24) Optimum storage for Cryo AHF is: a. - 20 C b. - 12 C c. 4 C d. 22 C. Answer: a Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at -18C or lower. ◉ 25) Cryo AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling? a. 4 hrs.
b. 8 hrs. c. 12 hrs. d. 24 hrs.. Answer: a Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours of pooling. ◉ c. Answer: ◉ 26) Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24 C in 50 mL of plasma and gently agitated can be used for up to: a. 24 hrs. b. 48 hrs. c. 3 days d. 5 days. Answer: d
- Whole Blood-derived platelets are stored at 20-24 C with continuous gentle agitation.
- Platelets prepared by the PRP method may be stored for up to 5 days. ◉ 27) Optimum storage temperature for platelets: a. - 20 C b. - 12 C c. 4 C
◉ 30) Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within: a. 4 hrs. b. 8 hrs. c. 12 hrs. d. 24 hrs.. Answer: d Once thawed:
- FFP is stored at 1-6C for up to 24 hours. ◉ 32) In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at: a. 1 - 6 C b. 22 C c. 37 C d. 56 C. Answer: a The required temperature for storage of thawed plasma is 1-6C.) ◉ 36) Irradiation of a unit of RBC's is done to prevent the replication of donor: a. granulocytes b. lymphocytes c. red cells d. platelets. Answer: b Irradiation inhibits proliferation of T lymphocytes.
◉ 37) Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing FFP in a 37 C water bath. because they prevent: a. FFP bag from cracking b. water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane c. the entry ports from being contaminated with water d. the label from peeling. Answer: c FFP thawed in a water bath should be protected so that entry ports are not contaminated with water. Note: One can may use a plastic overwrap or keep ports above the water level. ◉ 38) Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hrs. after phlebotomy: a. RBCs b. FFP c. Frozen rbcs d. Cryo AHF. Answer: b Fresh Frozen Plasma [FFP] must be separated and frozen within 8 hours of Whole Blood collection. ◉ 42) A blood component prepared by thawing FFP at refrigerator temp and removing the fluid portion is:
- followed by a heavy spin of the PRP to concentrate the platelets. ◉ 59) The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitutes a (an): a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype. Answer: d The entire set of HLA antigens located on one chromosome is a haplotype. ◉ 61) A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phenotype? a. A b. B c. O d. AB. Answer: c The A and B structures cannot be developed since there is no H precursor substance due to the lack of the H gene in the blood donor.) ◉ 62) An individual has been sensitized to the K antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype:
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0. Answer: a
- This individual cannot have the k antigen on their cells.
- KOKO is rare and no K system antigens are detected on the red blood cells.
- Those individuals usually produce antibodies that are reactive with all normal cells.
- KK is the most probable genotype. ◉ 63) Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicity: Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-) Js(a+b+) a. African American b. Asian American c. Native American d. Caucasian. Answer: a Fy[a-b-] individuals are very rare with all populations other than the individual of African descent Note: Exception: 68% of African Americans are Fy[a-b-].
◉ 67) The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce: a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters. Answer: c
- The Xg blood group system is unique in that the gene encodes on the X chromosome.
- A negative mother would not have the Xg[a] to pass on.
- A positive father would, however, transmit the Xg[a] to all his daughters.) ◉ 70) The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as: a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+). Answer: c The Lewis antigens are developed by gene interaction:
- Both the Lewis and Secretor gene are required for red cells to type as Le[a-b+].
- If a person has a Lewis gene, but not Secretor gene, then the cells type as Le[a+b-].
- The Le[a-b-] phenotype is derived when the *Lewis gene is absent and the Secretor gene may or may not be present.
- The Le[a+b-] phenotype occurs in 22% of the population
- Le[a-b-] occurs in 6%, so the most likely phenotype of a nonsecretor [se/se] is Le[a+b-].) ◉ 71) Which of the following phenotype will react with anti-f: a. rr b. R1R c. R2R d. R1R2. Answer: a Anti-f will react with cells that carry c and e on the same Rh polypeptide. Note: No other listed genotypes produce an Rh polypeptide that carries both c and e. ◉ 74) A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype. a. rr b. r"r c. R1r d. R2r. Answer: c
The frequency of compatible donors for this patient can be calculated by:
- multiplying the percentage of the population that is e-C- x Fy[a-] x Jk[b-]. Notes: The blood supplier's immunohematology reference laboratory may have units in stock or can request blood from other IRLs* through the American Rare Donor Program*.) ◉ 83) In relationship testing a "Direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: a. absent in child, present in mother and alleged father b. absent in child, present in mother and absent in alleged father c. present in child, absent in mother and present in father alleged father d. present in child, absent in the mother and alleged father. Answer: d When a marker is in a child that the mother and alleged father do not have the alleged father cannot be the biological father of the child. This is a direct exclusion.) ◉ 85) In a relationship testing case the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this: a. indirect
b. direct c. prior probability d. Hardy-Weinbery. Answer: b Direct exclusion of paternity is established when a genetic marker is present in the child but is absent from the mother and the alleged father. ◉ 87) Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by: a. Jules Bordet b. Louis Pasteur c. Karl Landsteiner d. PL Mollison. Answer: c The ABO blood group system was discovered by Karl Landsteiner. ◉ 88) Cells of the A3 subgroup will: a. react with Dolichos biflorus b. bE-with anti-A c. have a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B d. bE- with anti-H. Answer: c Mixed-field reactivity with anti-A and anti-A,B is a typical finding for A3 subgroups.
