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Question 1. Which OSHA regulation specifically requires the use of lockout/tagout (LOTO) procedures when servicing electrical equipment? A) 29 CFR 1910. B) 29 CFR 1910. C) 29 CFR 1910. D) 29 CFR 1910. Answer: A Explanation: OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910.147 governs the control of hazardous energy (LOTO) and applies to all electrical work where unexpected energization could cause injury. Question 2. When working on a live panel rated up to 600 V, which class of voltage-rated gloves must a technician wear according to NFPA 70E? A) Class 00 B) Class 2 C) Class 4 D) Class 6 Answer: C Explanation: NFPA 70E Class 4 gloves are rated for up to 1000 V AC/DC, providing adequate protection for 600 V work. Question 3. The 4:1 ladder placement rule states that for every four feet of ladder height, the base should be placed how many feet from the wall? A) 0.5 ft B) 1 ft C) 2 ft D) 3 ft Answer: B Explanation: The 4:1 rule requires a 1-foot base distance for every 4 feet of ladder height to maintain a safe angle.
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Question 4. Which fire extinguisher class is appropriate for extinguishing an electrical fire involving energized equipment? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D Answer: C Explanation: Class C extinguishers are designed for fires involving electrical equipment and are safe for use on energized sources. Question 5. When using a multimeter to verify continuity in a circuit, which setting should be selected? A) AC voltage B) DC voltage C) Resistance (Ω) D) Continuity (beep) Answer: D Explanation: The continuity setting produces an audible beep when low resistance is detected, confirming a complete path. Question 6. Which tool is best suited for removing insulation from a 22-AWG copper conductor without damaging the wire? A) Needle-nose pliers B) Wire strippers C) Crimping tool D) Fish tape Answer: B Explanation: Wire strippers are calibrated to strip specific gauge sizes cleanly without nicking the conductor.
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B) 20 Ω
C) 30 Ω
D) 60 Ω
Answer: D Explanation: Series resistances add directly: 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 Ω. Question 11. Which component stores electrical energy in an electric field? A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Relay D) Diode Answer: B Explanation: Capacitors store charge as an electric field between their plates. Question 12. A normally open (N.O.) contact in a security sensor means that when the sensor is not triggered, the circuit is: A) Closed, allowing current flow B) Open, preventing current flow C) Shorted, causing a fault D) In a high-impedance state Answer: B Explanation: N.O. contacts remain open (no current) until the sensor activates, closing the circuit. Question 13. Which type of power source is considered a secondary source in a security system? A) 120 V AC utility line B) 12 V sealed lead-acid battery backup C) Solar panel array D) Diesel generator
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Answer: B Explanation: Secondary sources store energy (batteries) for backup, unlike primary sources that provide continuous power. Question 14. The process of converting AC to DC for low-voltage security devices is called: A) Inversion B) Rectification C) Regulation D) Modulation Answer: B Explanation: Rectifiers (diode bridges) convert alternating current to direct current. Question 15. Which battery type is most commonly used for UPS backup in small security installations? A) Alkaline AA B) Nickel-metal hydride (NiMH) C) Sealed lead-acid (SLA) D) Lithium-ion polymer (Li-Po) Answer: C Explanation: SLA batteries provide high current, are cost-effective, and are standard in UPS units. Question 16. The central processing unit (CPU) of a security control panel primarily performs which function? A) Generates video streams B) Executes the system’s logic and event processing C) Supplies power to door strikes D) Provides wireless communication only Answer: B Explanation: The CPU runs the alarm logic, processes inputs, and triggers outputs.
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Question 20. A panic button is typically wired to which type of alarm output? A) Bypass zone B) Trouble zone C) Alarm (fire) zone D) Silent alarm (duress) zone Answer: D Explanation: Panic buttons often generate a silent duress alarm that notifies monitoring without audible sirens. Question 21. In a security system, a strobe light is primarily used for which purpose? A) Audio deterrent B) Visual alert for the hearing impaired and to deter intruders C) Power backup indication D) Network synchronization Answer: B Explanation: Strobes provide a bright visual cue, supplementing sirens and aiding those with hearing impairments. Question 22. Which keypad technology provides the highest durability for outdoor installations? A) LCD with backlight B) LED matrix C) Touchscreen capacitive D) Mechanical key (membrane) Answer: D Explanation: Mechanical membrane keypads are sealed, resist moisture, and are ideal for harsh environments. Question 23. An IP camera differs from an analog camera primarily in: A) Use of coaxial cable for video transmission
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B) Ability to transmit video over Ethernet using digital packets C) Requirement of a separate DVR D) Lack of any built-in storage Answer: B Explanation: IP cameras encode video into IP packets and send them over network cabling (Cat5e/6). Question 24. A lens with a focal length of 2.8 mm is best suited for: A) Long-range, narrow field of view monitoring B) Wide-angle, short-range coverage C) Telephoto surveillance of distant objects D) Fixed-focus macro imaging Answer: B Explanation: Short focal lengths produce wide fields of view, ideal for close-range, broad coverage. Question 25. Wide Dynamic Range (WDR) technology in cameras helps to: A) Increase night vision distance beyond 30 m B) Balance exposure in scenes with both bright and dark areas C) Compress video files for storage efficiency D) Enable 3-D depth perception Answer: B Explanation: WDR captures details in both highlights and shadows, improving image quality in high-contrast scenes. Question 26. Which cabling type is most appropriate for transmitting analog CCTV video up to 300 m with minimal loss? A) Cat6 UTP B) RG-59 coaxial C) Fiber-optic multimode
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Explanation: Maglocks are fail-safe; they stay locked only while power is applied. Question 30. A Request-to-Exit (REX) device that uses a passive infrared sensor is most appropriate for which scenario? A) High-traffic lobby where occupants may not press a button B) Exterior door exposed to sunlight C) Secure vault with limited egress D) Fire-rated door requiring manual push-button release Answer: A Explanation: PIR REX devices detect motion, allowing hands-free egress in busy areas. Question 31. Which credential technology stores data on a chip that can be encrypted and updated remotely? A) Proximity (125 kHz) card B) Smart (contact) card C) Magnetic stripe card D) Barcode label Answer: B Explanation: Smart cards contain microprocessors that can encrypt data and be reprogrammed via contact or contactless interfaces. Question 32. In access control communication, the Wiegand protocol transmits data at a fixed voltage and speed. Which newer protocol offers encrypted, bidirectional communication? A) RS- 232 B) OSDP (Open Supervised Device Protocol) C) CAN bus D) Modbus RTU Answer: B Explanation: OSDP supports two-way communication, encryption, and device supervision, improving security over Wiegand.
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Question 33. A door controller that enforces a “time-based” access schedule is an example of: A) Hardware redundancy B) System logic C) Credential duplication D) Power management Answer: B Explanation: System logic defines when and how credentials are valid, such as time-based schedules. Question 34. According to T568A wiring standards, which color pair is used for the transmit-positive (Tx +) in an Ethernet cable? A) White-orange / orange B) White-green / green C) White-blue / blue D) White-brown / brown Answer: A Explanation: In T568A, the orange pair (white-orange & orange) is assigned to Tx + and Tx – for 10/100 Mbps. Question 35. When selecting an AWG gauge for a 24 V DC security camera located 150 ft from the power source, which factor is most critical to prevent excessive voltage drop? A) Conductor color B) Shielding type C) Wire gauge (thickness) D) Cable jacket material Answer: C Explanation: Larger-diameter (lower AWG number) conductors have lower resistance, reducing voltage drop over long runs.
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A) Video surveillance B) Fire alarm and signaling systems C) Access control D) Electrical wiring methods Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 72 is the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, covering fire detection and alarm systems. Question 40. When interpreting a wiring diagram, a symbol of a circle with an “M” inside typically represents: A) Motor B) Magnetic lock (maglock) C) Microphone D) Monitoring station Answer: B Explanation: In security schematics, an “M” inside a circle denotes a magnetic lock. Question 41. A site survey for a new CCTV installation should include which of the following measurements? A) Cable length only B) Lighting levels, field of view, and mounting height C) Number of Wi-Fi networks nearby D) HVAC system specifications Answer: B Explanation: Lighting, FOV, and mounting height affect camera performance and placement decisions. Question 42. Which document typically outlines the exact locations of all security devices, cable routes, and power sources after installation? A) Work order B) As-built drawing
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C) Service level agreement (SLA) D) Warranty certificate Answer: B Explanation: As-built drawings capture the final, accurate layout of all installed components. Question 43. In professional communication with a client, the term “confidentiality” most directly refers to: A) Keeping system passwords secret from unauthorized personnel B) Using encrypted network protocols C) Protecting the client’s personal and security information from disclosure D) Installing a lock on the server rack Answer: C Explanation: Confidentiality in client relations means safeguarding sensitive information from unauthorized exposure. Question 44. Which NEC article specifically addresses the installation of fire alarm wiring? A) Article 210 – Branch Circuits B) Article 725 – Class 2 and Class 3 Circuits C) Article 760 – Fire Alarm Systems D) Article 800 – Communications Circuits Answer: C Explanation: NEC Article 760 covers fire alarm system wiring requirements. Question 45. A technician must test a door strike’s voltage before connecting it to a control panel. Which instrument setting should be used? A) AC voltage 600 V B) DC voltage 200 V C) Resistance (Ω) D) Continuity (beep)
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Explanation: Requiring two independent detection methods greatly reduces nuisance activations. Question 49. Which of the following is a common cause of “arc flash” hazards in a security installation environment? A) Over-tightened cable ties B) Improperly grounded equipment energized at high voltage C) Using plastic conduit for power cables D) Installing low-voltage devices on a high-voltage circuit Answer: B Explanation: Arc flash occurs when an ungrounded or improperly grounded high-voltage source creates a high-energy discharge. Question 50. According to NFPA 70E, what is the minimum arc-flash protection boundary for a system rated at 1.2 cal/cm²? A) 4 inches B) 12 inches C) 24 inches D) 48 inches Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 70E Table 4.2.2.1 specifies a 12-inch boundary for 1.2 cal/cm² incident energy. Question 51. When installing a coaxial cable for analog CCTV, which connector type is most frequently used? A) RJ- 45 B) BNC C) SMA D) LC Answer: B Explanation: BNC connectors are standard for coaxial video connections.
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Question 52. In a PoE installation, which component is responsible for injecting power onto the Ethernet cable? A) Switch B) Injector (mid-span) C) Router D) Hub Answer: B Explanation: A PoE injector adds DC power to the cable when the switch does not provide PoE. Question 53. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using fiber-optic cable for video transmission in a large campus? A) Lower cost than copper B) Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and longer distance capability C) Ability to carry power to cameras D) Simpler termination process Answer: B Explanation: Fiber is immune to EMI and can transmit video over many kilometers without signal loss. Question 54. An access control system uses a “three-card” rule: a card must be presented, a PIN entered, and a biometric scanned. This is an example of: A) Multi-factor authentication B) Redundant authentication C) Single-factor authentication D) Time-based authentication Answer: A Explanation: Combining something you have (card), know (PIN), and are (biometric) constitutes multi-factor authentication.
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A) Proximity card B) Smart card C) Fingerprint reader D) Iris scanner Answer: D Explanation: Iris scanners capture the distinctive patterns of the iris for biometric authentication. Question 59. In a Wiegand card reader, the data is transmitted in how many bits per standard format? A) 8 bits B) 26 bits C) 32 bits D) 64 bits Answer: B Explanation: The common Wiegand format uses 26 bits (including parity) for card data. Question 60. When terminating a Cat6 cable for PoE, which pair is typically used for power delivery? A) Pair 1 (orange) and Pair 2 (green) – both data pairs B) Pair 3 (blue) and Pair 4 (brown) – spare pairs C) All four pairs simultaneously (802.3bt) D) Only the green pair Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 802.3bt (PoE++) can use all four pairs to deliver up to 90 W, but for 802.3at, power is on spare pairs (blue and brown). Since the question asks generally, the most comprehensive answer is C. Question 61. Which NEC requirement addresses the need for fire-stop devices when cables pass through fire-rated walls? A) Article 300 – Wiring Methods
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B) Article 702 – Fire Alarm Systems C) Article 500 – Hazardous (Classified) Locations D) Article 770 – Optical Fiber Cables Answer: A Explanation: NEC Article 300 includes provisions for fire-stop fittings to maintain fire-rating integrity. Question 62. A technician discovers a broken conductor inside a conduit. Which tool is most appropriate for locating the fault without removing the conduit? A) Toner-probe with a tone generator B) Multimeter continuity test C) Cable fault locator (TDR) D) Fish tape Answer: C Explanation: A Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) can identify the location of a break within a cable run. Question 63. In a security system, “tamper” zones are used to detect: A) Unauthorized opening of enclosures or panels B) Motion in a protected area C) Glass breakage D) Power loss to the system Answer: A Explanation: Tamper zones monitor for physical intrusion on the system’s hardware. Question 64. Which of the following statements about “relay” devices in security circuits is correct? A) Relays provide continuous power to sensors B) Relays can isolate low-voltage circuits from high-voltage loads C) Relays are used only for video transmission D) Relays store energy like capacitors
