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Question 1. Which component of Epic’s architecture is responsible for rendering the user interface that clinicians interact with? A) Chronicles database B) Hyperspace client C) Epic Bridge D) Caboodle data warehouse Answer: B Explanation: The Hyperspace client runs on the clinician’s workstation and provides the graphical user interface, while Chronicles stores the underlying data. Question 2. In the login process, what does the “Login Department” field primarily control? A) Which Epic modules are loaded after login B) The default security class applied to the user session C) The list of patient MRNs displayed on the start screen D) The set of available Epic toolbar buttons Answer: B Explanation: “Login Department” maps the user to a security class (ECL) that defines permissions for that session. Question 3. Which keyboard shortcut opens the global Activity Search (Control + Space) in Hyperspace? A) Alt + A B) Ctrl + Shift + F C) Ctrl + Space D) F Answer: C Explanation: Pressing Control + Space brings up the Activity Search window, allowing rapid navigation to any activity. Question 4. When customizing the Epic Toolbar, which button lets you set a specific activity as the default “Home” screen?
A) Pin to Toolbar B) Set as Home C) Add to Favorites D) Create Shortcut Answer: B Explanation: The “Set as Home” option designates the selected activity to load automatically after login. Question 5. Which patient identifier is NOT searchable by default in the Patient Lookup window? A) Medical Record Number (MRN) B) Date of Birth (DOB) C) Social Security Number (SSN) D) Insurance Policy Number Answer: D Explanation: MRN, DOB, and SSN are standard searchable fields; insurance policy numbers require additional configuration. Question 6. The “Recent Patients” list in Hyperspace is populated based on which of the following criteria? A) All patients seen in the last 30 days across the enterprise B) Patients the user has opened in the current session only C) The most recent 10 patient charts the user accessed, regardless of location D) Patients assigned to the user’s service line Answer: C Explanation: “Recent Patients” shows the last 10 charts the individual user opened, independent of service line. Question 7. What is the primary purpose of the Storyboard in Epic? A) To display a timeline of all orders placed for a patient B) To provide a consistent, high‑level summary of key patient data across activities C) To generate a printable discharge summary
Question 11. Which Epic feature allows clinicians to insert pre‑written text blocks into a note? A) SmartPhrases B) SmartLinks C) SmartForms D) SmartGroups Answer: A Explanation: SmartPhrases are reusable text snippets that expand when typed (e.g., .cardioexam). Question 12. What is the main difference between a “Signed” and a “Cosigned” note? A) Signed notes are final; Cosigned notes require a second clinician’s approval before becoming final B) Signed notes are encrypted; Cosigned notes are not C) Signed notes can be edited; Cosigned notes cannot D) There is no functional difference; it is only a terminology preference Answer: A Explanation: A signed note is complete by the author; a cosigned note indicates a supervising clinician has reviewed and approved it. Question 13. When building a patient list, which option creates a dynamic list that updates automatically based on criteria? A) Manual list B) System list C) Smart list (criteria‑based) D) Favorite list Answer: C Explanation: Smart lists are defined by search criteria (e.g., all patients with a specific diagnosis) and refresh automatically. Question 14. In Computerized Physician Order Entry (CPOE), what does the “Preference List” function provide?
A) A list of the most frequently ordered labs only B) A user‑specific shortcut list of orders the clinician selects for quick entry C) A list of orders pending insurance verification D) A list of orders that have been discontinued Answer: B Explanation: Preference Lists allow clinicians to save a personalized set of orders for rapid placement. Question 15. If an order fails validation, which of the following is the most likely cause? A) The patient’s insurance has expired B) The order conflicts with a hard stop rule (e.g., duplicate medication) C) The clinician’s login session timed out D) The order set was not assigned to the user’s role Answer: B Explanation: Validation errors arise from clinical rules (hard stops, dosage limits, etc.) that prevent unsafe orders. Question 16. SmartGroups are primarily used for which purpose? A) Grouping related orders within an order set for easier navigation B) Creating patient cohorts for research C) Managing user security groups D) Defining medication administration times Answer: A Explanation: SmartGroups are collapsible sections inside an order set that organize orders by discipline or workflow. Question 17. In the Medication Administration Record (MAR), how are PRN medications distinguished from scheduled medications? A) PRN medications appear in red text B) PRN medications have a “PRN” label next to the dose time C) PRN medications are listed on a separate tab
Question 21. Which hierarchy correctly describes the relationship of data elements in Chronicles? A) Record → Value → Item B) Item → Record → Value C) Record → Item → Value D) Value → Record → Item Answer: C Explanation: A Record contains Items (fields), each Item holds a Value (the actual data). Question 22. When editing a dropdown menu that appears system‑wide, which type of category list must be modified? A) Customer‑level list B) System‑level list C) User‑level list D) Role‑level list Answer: B Explanation: System‑level category lists are global across the entire Epic instance; customer‑level lists are scoped to a specific organization. Question 23. What is the primary distinction between a User Role (E2R) and a Security Class (ECL)? A) E2R defines what a user can see; ECL defines what actions they can perform B) E2R is assigned per patient; ECL is assigned per department C) E2R controls toolbar layout; ECL controls login credentials D) There is no functional difference; they are synonyms Answer: A Explanation: E2R (role) determines the UI elements presented, while ECL (class) governs permissions for actions. Question 24. Profiles (LPR) are used in Epic to: A) Store patient laboratory results B) Configure the layout and default activities for a specific job function
C) Manage insurance eligibility checks D) Define order set hierarchies Answer: B Explanation: LPR profiles tailor the Hyperspace experience (toolbar, start page, etc.) for a given role or department. Question 25. In the In Basket, which folder is best suited for tracking pending prescription refill requests? A) Results B) Staff Messages C) Rx Requests D) Work Queue Answer: C Explanation: The “Rx Requests” folder groups medication refill and new prescription requests for clinician action. Question 26. Which feature of Secure Chat allows a conversation to be directly linked to a patient’s chart? A) Chat Tagging B) Patient‑Link button C) Contextual Chat Mode D) Epic‑Chat Integration Answer: B Explanation: The “Patient‑Link” button attaches the chat to the selected patient, ensuring documentation and auditability. Question 27. SmartForms differ from SmartPhrases in that SmartForms are: A) Used only for order entry B) Structured data‑capture tools with fields and validation rules C) Limited to pharmacy workflows
Explanation: A read‑only lock protects concurrent editing by allowing only one user to make changes while others can view. Question 31. In the environment lifecycle, which stage follows Proof of Concept (POC) before Production (PRD)? A) Development (DEV) B) Staging (STG) C) Quality Assurance (QA) D) Acceptance (ACC) Answer: C Explanation: After POC, builds are typically moved to QA for testing before being promoted to Production. Question 32. Data Courier is primarily used for: A) Transferring patient charts between hospitals B) Moving build items (e.g., SmartForms, Category lists) between Epic environments C) Scheduling medication administration times D) Exporting billing data to external systems Answer: B Explanation: Data Courier packages and transports configuration and build artifacts across environments. Question 33. Nova in Epic is best described as: A) The central reporting engine for analytics B) The web‑based interface for reviewing release notes and build changes C) A mobile app for clinicians D) The underlying database engine for Chronicles Answer: B Explanation: Nova provides a searchable portal for release notes, build tracking, and documentation.
Question 34. Which security point is automatically granted to all users who belong to the “Physician” E2R? A) Ability to delete patient charts B) Access to the “Orders” tab in every activity C) Permission to modify security classes (ECL) D) Unlimited access to all inpatient notes Answer: B Explanation: Physicians are given the standard order entry permissions, whereas deletion or security modifications require higher privileges. Question 35. When a clinician uses the global search (Ctrl + Space) and selects an activity, what happens to the current patient context? A) It is retained unless the activity is patient‑specific, in which case the new patient is loaded B) The current patient is automatically closed and cleared from memory C) The system logs the user out for security reasons D) The activity always opens in a new window with no patient context Answer: A Explanation: If the chosen activity is patient‑agnostic (e.g., Work Queue), the existing patient stays; if patient‑specific, the new patient becomes active. Question 36. Which of the following best defines a “SmartGroup” within an order set? A) A collection of related orders that can be collapsed or expanded for easier navigation B) A list of patients who meet a specific clinical criteria C) A security role that groups users with similar permissions D) A template for discharge summaries Answer: A Explanation: SmartGroups organize orders into logical sections within an order set. Question 37. In Epic, what does the abbreviation “CPOE” stand for? A) Clinical Patient Order Entry
Answer: C Explanation: Lab test manufacturer is not a standard filter; result status, provider, and date range are. Question 41. When a medication order is marked as “Discontinued,” where does it appear in the MAR? A) Under the “Scheduled” section with a strikethrough B) In a separate “Discontinued” tab C) It is removed completely from the MAR view D) Under the “PRN” section with a red flag Answer: B Explanation: Discontinued orders are listed in a dedicated “Discontinued” area for audit purposes. Question 42. Which Epic module provides the ability to view external patient data from other health systems directly within the chart? A) Care Everywhere B) Interconnect C) Data Courier D) Nova Answer: A Explanation: Care Everywhere aggregates and displays external records within the patient chart. Question 43. In the context of Epic security, what does the acronym “ECL” represent? A) Epic Clinical Level B) Electronic Clearance List C) Epic Security Class D) Enterprise Clinical License Answer: C Explanation: ECL stands for Epic Security Class, defining what actions a user can perform.
Question 44. Which of the following actions can a user with only “Read‑Only” security on a patient chart perform? A) Add a new medication order B) Edit the problem list C) View all existing notes and results D) Sign a progress note Answer: C Explanation: Read‑Only users can view data but cannot make any modifications. Question 45. When configuring a Category List at the Customer level, which file extension is typically edited? A) .INI B) .CPT C) .DBF D) .XML Answer: A Explanation: Category lists are stored in INI files within the Chronicles configuration. Question 46. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a “Preference List” in order entry? A) To store a patient’s medication allergies B) To provide a shortcut list of the clinician’s most frequently used orders C) To prioritize orders based on urgency D) To automatically approve all orders placed by the user Answer: B Explanation: Preference Lists let clinicians quickly select commonly used orders. Question 47. In Epic, what does the “Results” folder of the In Basket contain? A) All pending orders that need review B) Incoming lab, imaging, and pathology results awaiting acknowledgment
Explanation: Data Courier is the tool for moving build artifacts across environments. Question 51. When a clinician receives a lab result marked “Critical,” how is it typically highlighted in the In Basket? A) It appears in the “Staff Messages” folder B) It is flagged with a red exclamation icon and may generate a pop‑up alert C) It is automatically signed by the ordering provider D) It is hidden until the clinician manually expands the folder Answer: B Explanation: Critical results are visually emphasized to prompt immediate review. Question 52. Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the Epic “Storyboard”? A) Allergies list B) Problem list C) Medication administration record (MAR) D) Upcoming appointments Answer: C Explanation: The MAR is accessed via the Medication tab, not displayed on the Storyboard. Question 53. In Epic, a “SmartGroup” can be configured to: A) Automatically order a set of labs based on a diagnosis B) Collapse a set of orders within an order set for better navigation C) Generate a patient list for research studies D) Assign security roles to users Answer: B Explanation: SmartGroups organize orders within an order set, allowing them to be expanded or collapsed. Question 54. Which of the following best describes the “Nova” portal?
A) A real‑time messaging system for clinicians B) An online repository for release notes, build documentation, and system change tracking C) The mobile version of Epic’s Hyperspace client D) A data warehouse for reporting Answer: B Explanation: Nova houses documentation on system updates and build changes. Question 55. A clinician wants to view all patients who have a “Pending” lab result for CBC. Which Epic tool should they use? A) In Basket → Results folder filter B) SmartList with criteria “Result Status = Pending AND Test = CBC” C) Preference List D) Secure Chat Answer: B Explanation: A SmartList can be defined with those criteria to generate a dynamic patient list. Question 56. Which of the following statements about “Read‑Only” locks is correct? A) They prevent any user from opening the record B) They allow users to edit the record but not delete it C) They indicate the record is being edited by another user, allowing only viewing D) They are applied automatically to all discharged patients Answer: C Explanation: Read‑Only locks protect concurrent editing by allowing only one active editor. Question 57. In the Epic toolbar, which icon provides quick access to the “Home” activity? A) A house symbol B) A magnifying glass C) A calendar D) A gear
Question 61. In Epic, the “Results” folder can be customized to automatically sort incoming items by: A) Provider name only B) Result status and date received C) Patient’s insurance type D) User’s login department Answer: B Explanation: Sorting by result status (e.g., Critical, New) and receipt date helps prioritize review. Question 62. Which of the following is a key advantage of using a “SmartList” over a manual patient list? A) SmartLists can be edited directly by any user without restrictions B) SmartLists automatically update as patient data changes to meet the defined criteria C) SmartLists are stored in a separate database that never syncs with Chronicles D) SmartLists require no configuration and appear by default for all users Answer: B Explanation: SmartLists are dynamic; they refresh when underlying patient data meets the criteria. Question 63. When a clinician selects “Cosign” on a note, what is the system’s primary requirement before the note becomes final? A) The original author must re‑open the note for editing B) A supervising clinician with appropriate security must review and approve the note C) The note must be printed and signed on paper D) The patient must be present for verification Answer: B Explanation: Cosigning requires a designated supervisor to validate the note before it is considered final. Question 64. In the context of Epic builds, what does the acronym “POC” stand for? A) Patient‑Order Communication B) Proof of Concept
C) Point of Care D) Protocol of Care Answer: B Explanation: POC is the early development environment used to test new functionality. Question 65. Which of the following best describes the function of “Secure Chat” in Epic? A) A public forum for all staff to discuss hospital policies B) Encrypted, patient‑linked messaging for real‑time communication among clinicians C) An automated alert system for lab results only D) A tool for sending bulk emails to all users Answer: B Explanation: Secure Chat provides HIPAA‑compliant messaging tied to patient records. Question 66. When an order is placed with a “Hard Stop” rule violation, what does the system do? A) Silently corrects the order and proceeds B) Blocks the order and displays an error message requiring clinician acknowledgment C) Sends the order to pharmacy for manual review only D) Allows the order but flags it for later audit Answer: B Explanation: Hard stops prevent unsafe orders from being saved until the issue is resolved. Question 67. Which of the following is NOT a typical element of a “SmartForm”? A) Field validation (e.g., required entry) B) Dynamic calculations based on entered data C) Free‑text paragraph without any structure D) Conditional display of sections Answer: C Explanation: SmartForms are structured with defined fields; free‑text paragraphs are more characteristic of SmartPhrases.
