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Question 1. Which Epic tool is used to locate a patient record while minimizing the creation of duplicate records? A) Quick Find B) Advanced Search C) Recent Patients D) Patient Dashboard Answer: B Explanation: Advanced Search allows users to apply multiple filters (name, DOB, MRN) to accurately locate a record, reducing the risk of duplicate entries. Question 2. In Epic, a patient without an assigned medical record number is considered a: A) Temporary patient B) Guest patient C) Prospective patient D) Unverified patient Answer: A Explanation: Temporary (ID‑less) patients are created for walk‑ins or referrals before a permanent MRN is assigned. Question 3. The purple box icon on the Appointment Desk indicates: A) A pending lab order B) An order‑based scheduling request C) A canceled appointment D) A patient’s insurance issue Answer: B Explanation: The purple box signals an order‑based scheduling request generated from EpicCare, allowing direct booking from the order. Question 4. Which sidebar button on the Appointment Desk opens the “Future Appointments” view?
A) Today’s Schedule B) Upcoming Visits C) Calendar D) Future Appointments Answer: D Explanation: The “Future Appointments” button displays all appointments scheduled after the current date. Question 5. When verifying a patient’s address during registration, which Epic field must be updated to trigger a mailing address change? A) Home Phone B) Preferred Language C) Address Line 1 D) Emergency Contact Answer: C Explanation: Updating Address Line 1 (or related address fields) ensures the system uses the new mailing address for communications. Question 6. In Prelude integration, the “Guarantor” field is primarily used to: A) Assign a primary care physician B) Record the party responsible for payment C) Indicate the patient’s legal guardian D) Store insurance policy numbers Answer: B Explanation: The guarantor is the individual or entity financially responsible for the patient’s charges. Question 7. Which Visit Type should be selected for a patient’s first encounter with a new specialist? A) Follow‑up B) New Patient
Explanation: Sorting by ZIP Code allows staff to quickly locate the nearest clinic locations for the patient. Question 11. Panels in Epic scheduling are used to: A) Book multiple patients at once B) Schedule a single visit with multiple providers simultaneously C) Combine different visit types (e.g., consult + diagnostic) into one appointment block D) Generate a printable schedule overview Answer: C Explanation: Panels let users bundle a consult and a related diagnostic test into a single scheduled block for the patient. Question 12. Sequential Scheduling is most appropriate when: A) A patient needs two unrelated visits on the same day B) Multiple patients are attending a group therapy session C) A patient must see a primary care physician then a specialist back‑to‑back D) A provider wants to block a half‑day for admin work Answer: C Explanation: Sequential Scheduling creates consecutive appointments across different providers, ensuring a smooth patient flow. Question 13. Which Epic feature allows a therapist to schedule a group session for up to ten patients at the same time? A) Book‑It B) Group Appointment C) Panel Scheduling D) Sequential Scheduling Answer: B Explanation: Group Appointment functionality is designed for multi‑patient sessions such as therapy groups or education classes.
Question 14. An “Appointment Request” generated by a clinician appears in which Epic module for scheduling? A) Scheduling Workqueue B) Appointment Desk C) Orders‑Based Scheduling D) MyChart Scheduler Answer: C Explanation: Orders‑Based Scheduling pulls clinician‑generated requests directly from EpicCare orders into the scheduling workflow. Question 15. When linking a scheduling encounter to a clinical order, the most important piece of information to verify is: A) The patient’s insurance copay amount B) The order’s service date matches the appointment date C) The provider’s NPI number D) The room number assigned to the encounter Answer: B Explanation: Matching the order’s service date with the appointment ensures the scheduled visit fulfills the clinical order. Question 16. During Check‑In, which Epic screen item confirms that the patient has completed all required pre‑visit questionnaires? A) Checklist B) Consent Form C) Registration Summary D) Visit Type Details Answer: A Explanation: The Checklist displays required tasks (questionnaires, vitals, insurance verification) that must be completed before the visit proceeds.
A) Identify patients with overdue balances B) Locate appointments missing insurance verification C) Call patients when an earlier slot opens up D) Generate a list of patients requiring lab work Answer: C Explanation: The Call Back report lists patients on the Wait List, enabling staff to contact them as soon as a slot becomes available. Question 21. When opening a cash drawer at the front desk, which of the following must be performed first? A) Print the daily revenue summary B) Enter the opening cash amount into the system C) Close all open appointments for the day D) Run the No‑Show report Answer: B Explanation: The system requires the opening cash amount to track transactions and reconcile the drawer at close. Question 22. A co‑pay of $30 is required for a “New Patient” visit. Where is this amount captured in Epic? A) Visit Type configuration B) Patient’s guarantor balance C) Cash Drawer transaction screen during Check‑Out D) Insurance Eligibility screen Answer: C Explanation: The co‑pay is collected at Check‑Out and entered into the cash drawer transaction module. Question 23. In a provider’s template, an “Open” slot indicates: A) Time reserved for administrative work only B) A slot that can be booked by any patient meeting the Visit Type criteria
C) A blocked period unavailable for scheduling D) An overbooked period exceeding normal capacity Answer: B Explanation: Open slots are available for standard scheduling according to the provider’s rules. Question 24. A “Blocked” slot in a provider template is used to: A) Reserve time for a specific appointment type, such as surgeries B) Indicate that the provider is on vacation C) Prevent any scheduling for the entire day D) Allow overbooking beyond normal limits Answer: A Explanation: Blocks reserve time for specific services (e.g., procedures, admin) and can be limited to certain Visit Types. Question 25. Release Time in a provider template determines: A) When a blocked slot becomes visible to all schedulers B) The time a patient must arrive before the appointment starts C) The deadline for entering encounter notes D) The interval before a patient can be added to the Wait List Answer: A Explanation: Release Time defines when a blocked or overbooked slot is released to the general scheduling pool. Question 26. A “Soft” overbook limit permits: A) Unlimited overbooking for the provider B) Overbooking only if the provider manually approves each slot C) Overbooking up to a predefined number, but the system still warns staff D) No overbooking; it behaves like a hard limit Answer: C
Question 30. In Visit Type configuration, the default duration is used for: A) Calculating patient copay amounts B) Determining how much time the Auto Scheduler reserves for the appointment C) Setting the provider’s salary D) Generating the patient’s after‑visit summary Answer: B Explanation: The default duration tells the scheduler how much block time to allocate for that Visit Type. Question 31. Linking a Visit Type to a Department ensures: A) Only providers belonging to that department can schedule the Visit Type B) The patient receives a department‑specific billing code automatically C) The appointment appears on the department’s daily worklist D) The Visit Type inherits the department’s insurance contracts Answer: C Explanation: Department linkage routes the appointment to the appropriate worklist and reporting structures. Question 32. Which Scheduling Workqueue (WQ) helps identify appointments missing required clinical orders? A) Open Appointments WQ B) Orders‑Missing WQ C) No‑Show WQ D) Wait List WQ Answer: B Explanation: The Orders‑Missing Workqueue flags appointments that lack the necessary orders for the scheduled service. Question 33. The Patient Workqueue is primarily used to: A) Track provider productivity
B) Identify registration errors such as missing demographics or guarantor info C) Manage room assignments for the day D) Generate daily revenue reports Answer: B Explanation: Patient Workqueues surface incomplete registration data, allowing staff to correct errors before the visit. Question 34. Running the “Daily Appointment List” report provides: A) A list of all patients who have not paid their copays B) All appointments scheduled for a specific date, including status and provider C) A summary of provider overtime hours D) A count of all new patient registrations for the month Answer: B Explanation: The Daily Appointment List shows every scheduled encounter for the chosen date, useful for front‑desk preparation. Question 35. A “Bump List” filter in Reporting Workbench is used to: A) Identify patients who have been moved to a later date due to provider unavailability B?** (Incorrect formatting) C) List appointments with missing insurance eligibility D) Show all appointments that have been overbooked Answer: A Explanation: The Bump List tracks appointments that were rescheduled (“bumped”) to another time slot. Question 36. In Epic’s MyChart Scheduling, “Direct Scheduling” allows patients to: A) Request an appointment that staff must manually approve before confirmation B) Book an available slot instantly without staff intervention, subject to provider rules C) Only view available slots but not book them D) Schedule only telehealth visits
Explanation: Tapestry is Epic’s referral management system, containing referral status and details. Question 40. Real‑Time Eligibility (RTE) checks are performed at which point in the scheduling workflow? A) When the patient checks in B) During the appointment request creation C) At the moment the scheduler selects a provider and Visit Type, before confirming the slot D) After the encounter is closed and billing is generated Answer: C Explanation: RTE validates insurance coverage instantly when a slot is being booked, ensuring the service is covered. Question 41. Which icon on the Appointment Desk indicates that an order‑based request is pending for a diagnostic test? A) Green check mark B) Purple box C) Red exclamation point D) Blue calendar Answer: B Explanation: The purple box consistently signals an order‑based scheduling request awaiting action. Question 42. In the “Make Appointment” workflow, the “Visit Type” field influences which of the following? A) The patient’s insurance premium B) The default appointment length and required documentation C) The provider’s annual salary calculation D) The location of the pharmacy pickup Answer: B Explanation: Visit Type determines default duration, needed forms, and sometimes location constraints.
Question 43. A provider wants to reserve a 2‑hour block each Friday for surgeries. Which template element should they configure? A) Open Slot B) Block with a custom “Surgery” Visit Type C) Overbook limit D) Release Time set to 8 AM Answer: B Explanation: Creating a Block tied to a “Surgery” Visit Type reserves the needed time on the specified day. Question 44. If a scheduler attempts to book an appointment that exceeds a provider’s hard overbook limit, Epic will: A) Allow the booking but flag it for manager review B) Automatically convert the appointment to a wait‑list entry C) Prevent the booking and display an error message D) Schedule the patient in a different provider’s template Answer: C Explanation: Hard limits are enforced; the system blocks any scheduling beyond the set threshold. Question 45. The “Clipboard” icon on the Appointment Desk is used for: A) Copying patient demographics B) Accessing order‑based scheduling queues C) Printing the daily schedule D) Initiating a telehealth session Answer: B Explanation: The clipboard represents the Orders‑Based Scheduling queue, where clinicians’ requests reside. Question 46. Which of the following is NOT a typical reason to place a patient on the Wait List? A) No available slots within the desired timeframe
D) Only group therapy sessions Answer: B Explanation: Panels are flexible and can bundle multiple visit types (e.g., consult + diagnostic) into one coordinated appointment. Question 50. In Epic, the term “Order‑Based Scheduling” refers to: A) Scheduling that is driven by a clinician’s order rather than a patient‑initiated request B) Scheduling based on pharmacy refill orders C) Scheduling that occurs only after the patient has checked in D) Scheduling that uses the patient’s insurance authorization number as the primary key Answer: A Explanation: Order‑Based Scheduling pulls in clinician‑generated service orders, allowing staff to book the required appointment directly. Question 51. When a patient’s insurance eligibility is checked in real time and returns “Not Covered,” the scheduler should: A) Proceed with scheduling and hope the issue resolves later B) Cancel the appointment request and notify the patient of the coverage issue C) Override the eligibility check and schedule anyway D) Change the Visit Type to “Self‑Pay” without informing the patient Answer: B Explanation: Lack of coverage must be communicated; the appointment should be cancelled or rescheduled after resolving insurance. Question 52. The “Auto Scheduler” can be configured to prioritize which of the following when multiple providers are eligible? A) Provider seniority B) Provider’s distance from the patient’s ZIP code C) Provider’s open slots that match the requested Visit Type’s duration D) Provider’s average patient satisfaction score
Answer: C Explanation: The Auto Scheduler selects the earliest open slot that meets the Visit Type criteria, regardless of provider seniority or distance. Question 53. Which of the following best describes a “Soft” block in a provider template? A) A block that can be overridden by a scheduler if needed B) A block that automatically converts to an open slot after release time C) A block that reserves time but still allows overbooking up to a set limit D) A block that is only visible to the provider, not to schedulers Answer: C Explanation: Soft blocks reserve time while permitting a defined number of overbooks, offering flexibility. Question 54. In the “Check‑In” workflow, a “Checklist” error that cannot be resolved at the desk should be: A) Ignored and the patient allowed to proceed B) Documented and escalated to the registration supervisor C) Resolved by changing the patient’s Visit Type on the spot D) Fixed by deleting the patient’s record and recreating it Answer: B Explanation: Unresolvable checklist errors must be escalated for proper handling to avoid data integrity issues. Question 55. Which reporting tool would you use to analyze the proportion of appointments that resulted in a no‑show? A) Daily Appointment List B) No‑Show Report C) Wait List Call Back report D) Revenue Cycle Summary Answer: B
A) Confirm the authorization status in Tapestry B) Verify the patient’s primary care provider assignment C) Update the patient’s address in Prelude D) Run the Daily Appointment List report Answer: A Explanation: Prior authorization must be confirmed to ensure the specialist visit will be reimbursed. Question 60. The “Clipboard” icon on the Appointment Desk is associated with which Epic concept? A) Patient’s medication list B) Orders‑Based Scheduling queue C) Provider’s personal notes D) Billing adjustments Answer: B Explanation: The clipboard represents the Orders‑Based Scheduling queue where clinician orders await scheduling. Question 61. A “Hard” overbook limit is set to 2 for a provider. If two patients are already overbooked, the system will: A) Allow a third overbook but flag it for manager review B) Prevent any additional overbooked appointments from being scheduled C) Automatically move the third patient to the Wait List D) Convert the third overbook into a regular open slot Answer: B Explanation: The hard limit enforces a strict maximum; no further overbooks can be added. Question 62. When a patient checks in and the system flags a missing insurance eligibility verification, the appropriate action is to: A) Proceed with the visit and resolve eligibility later B) Cancel the appointment immediately C) Pause the check‑in, run an eligibility check, and update the record before proceeding
D) Change the Visit Type to “Self‑Pay” without informing the patient Answer: C Explanation: Eligibility must be verified before the encounter to ensure accurate billing. Question 63. Which of the following statements about “Sequential Scheduling” is true? A) It can only be used for appointments with the same provider B) It automatically creates a single encounter note for both appointments C) It links two back‑to‑back appointments so the patient does not need to check out between them D) It is only available for telehealth visits Answer: C Explanation: Sequential Scheduling creates consecutive appointments, allowing the patient to move directly from one to the next. Question 64. In the “Visit Type” configuration screen, the “Instruction” field is used to: A) Set the default co‑pay amount B) Provide patient‑facing directions or preparation steps (e.g., fasting) C) Define the provider’s compensation rate D) Assign the Visit Type to a specific insurance plan Answer: B Explanation: Instructions are displayed to patients to prepare for the visit (e.g., “Bring a list of medications”). Question 65. The “Patient Workqueue” helps staff to: A) Identify appointments that lack an associated order B) Find patients with incomplete registration information such as missing guarantor data C) Generate a list of providers with open slots D) Track daily cash drawer balances Answer: B Explanation: Patient Workqueues surface registration errors, enabling staff to correct missing data before the visit.
