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Biology 191 Final Exam Review
1.During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students re- marks, "The giraffe
stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception?: Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.
2.Charles Darwin was the first person to propose: a mechanism for evolution that was
supported by evidence
3.Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of a natural selection in a
population over time?: All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors
4.Natural selection is based on all the following except: individuals adapt to their environments
and thereby, evolove.
5.Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following
events, under the influence of the natural selection?
1. well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted indi- viduals.
2. A change occurs in the environment
3. Genetic frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.: 2-4-1- 3
6.The roles that humans play in artificial selection is to: choose which organ- isms breed and
which do not
7.DDT was once considered a ºsilver bulletº that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today,
instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have been required for this pest eradication effort to be successful in the long run?: None of the individual insects should have processed genomes that made them resistant to DDT.
8.Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous struc- tures?: bones in the
bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
9.If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect
2 / 14 that: they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms.
10.Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost
their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses?: Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits.
11.Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda
in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, the morphological similarities of these two species are probably due to: posses- sion of analogous structures
12.If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms D, E,
and F belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?: D and F
13.Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of
wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology: Dogs and wolves belong to the same order
14.The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) reptiles, which almost
certainty possessed three- chambered hearts (two atria, one ventricle). Birds and mammals, however, are alike in having four-cham- bered hearts (two atria, two ventricles). The four-chambered hearts of bird and mammals are described as: homoplasies
15.The various taxonomic levels of the hierarchical classification system differ from each other
on the basis: their inclusiveness
16.The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is: having a reliable
average rate of mutation.
17.In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency
of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?:
18.In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the 2 in the term 2pq is
necessary because: heterozygotes can come about in two ways
19.If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average
4 / 14 closely related species, producing viable offspring
28.Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have
overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species, then which of these terms are applicable?: 1 and 2
29.According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden" appear- ance of a new species
in the fossil record means that: speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time
30.Which factor most likely caused animals and plants in India to differ greatly from species in
nearby southeast Asia?: India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago.
31.If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730 years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the
normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?: 22,
32.Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the
exception: genetic drift
33.The very first terrestrial organisms probably were considered which of the following?
1. burrowers
2. photosynthesis
3. multicellular
4. prokaryotes
5. eukaryotes
6. plants and their associated fungi: 2 and 4
34.Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
i. formation of protobionts
ii. synthesis of organic monomers
iii. synthesis of organic polymers
iv. formation of DNA- based genetic systems: ii, iii, i, iv
35.Which of the following is a defining characteristic that all protobionts had in common?: a
5 / 14 surrounding membrane or membrane like structure
36.Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?: 3.5 billion years
37.The first genes on Earth were probably: auto-catalytic RNA molecules
38.If it were possible to conduct sophisticated microscopic and chemical analyses of microfossils
found in 3.2 billion-year-old stromatolites, then one would not expect to observe evidence of which of the following within such microfossils?
i. double-stranded DNA
ii. a nuclear envelope
iii. a nucleiod
iv. a nucleouls
v. ribosomes: ii, iii, and iv
39.Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all the
life on Earth?: All organisms use essentially the same genetic code
40.Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other
surfaces?
1. capsules
2. endospores
3. fimbriae
4. plasmids
5. flagella: 1 and 3
41.Which statements about the genomes of prokaryotes is correct?: Prokary- otic genomes are
composed of circular DNA
42.Match the numbered terms to the description that follows. Choose all appropriate terms.
1. autotroph
2. heterotroph
3. phototroph
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54.Which of the following were probably factors that permitted early plants to successfully colonize
land?
1. the relative number of potential predators (herbivores)
2. the relative number of competitors
3. the relative availability of symbiotic partners
4. air's relative lack of support, compared to water's support: 1, 2, and 3
55.Which group is noted for the independence of gametophyte and sporo- phyte generations
from each other?: ferns
56.How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?: by facilitating dispersal of seeds
57.Arrange the following structures from the largest to smallest, assuming that they belong to
two generations of the same angiosperm.
1. ovary
2. ovule
3. egg
4. carpel
5. embryo sac (female gametophyte): 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
58.The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is that between hav- ing: true tissues or no
tissue
59.Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chor- dates in appearance?:
lancelets
60.What do all craniates have that earlier chordates did not have?: partial or complete skull
61.Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes: chondrichthyans
62.If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the
following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants' environment?: ethylene
63.Which of the following belongs to the lobe-fin clade?: tetrapods
64.Arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most
8 / 14 specific).
1. lobe-fins
2. amphibians
3. gnathostomes
4. osteichthyans
5. tetrapods: 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
65.Which of these are amniotes?: more than one of these is correct
66.Why is the amniotic egg considered an important evolutionary break- through?: It allows
deposition of eggs in a terrestrial environment
67.Choose the option that best describes the relationship between the cell wall thickness of
parenchyma cells versus sclerenchyma cells.: The cell walls of parenchyma cells are thinner than those of sclerenchyma cells.
68.Which structure is incorrectly paired with its tissue system?: companion cell-ground tissue
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85.Pholem transport is described as being from source to sink. Which of the following would most
accurately complete this statement about phloem transport as applied to most plants in the late spring? Phloem transports from the source to the sink.: sugars; leaf; apical meristem
86.Arrange the following five events in an order that explains the mass flow of materials in the
phloem.
1. Water diffuses into the sieve tubes.
2. Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis.
3. Solutes are actively transported into sieve tubes.
4. Sugar is transpoted from cell to cell in the leaf.
5. Sugar moves down the stem.: 2,4,3,1,
87. If a plant is infected with nitrogen-fixing bacteria, what is the most probable effect on the plant?:
It will likely grow faster.
88.Which of the following is a primary difference between ectomycorrhizae?-
: Ectomycorrhizae do not penetrate root cells, whereas endomycorrhizae grow into invaginations of the root cell membrane.
89.Which of the following is the correct sequence during the alternation of generation life cycle in a
flowering plant?: sporophyte- meiosis-gametophyte-ga- metes-fertilization-dpliod zygote
90.All of the following are primary functions of flowers execpt: photosynthesis
91.Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes plave when a flowering
plant reproducdes?: meiosis- pollination- nuclear fusion- formation of embryo and endosperm
92.Which of the following treatments would enhance the level of the Pfr form of phytochrome?:
exposure to red light
93.If a short-day plant has a critical night length of 15 hours, then which of the following 24-hour
cycles will prevent flowering?: 8 hours light/ 8 hours dark/ 8 hours dark
94.Which of the following best explains both the growth of a vine up the trunk of a tree as well
as the directional growth of a houseplant toward a window?: tropism repsonce
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95.You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive
in arid climates. You discover a plant that produces a hormone under water-deficit conditions that triggers a suite of drought responses. Most likely the hormone is: ABA.
96.All skeletal muscle fibers are both: striated and under voluntary control
97.Connective tissues typically have: relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular
matrix
98.The filtrate in the renal pelvis enters directly from: the collecting duct
99.The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule: is mainly a consequence of
blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus
100. The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal inter- nal environment
is termed: homeostasis
101. Hormones that promote homeostasis: usually operate as part of a negative feedback
system
102. Positive feedback differs from the negative feedback in that: the positive feedback's
effector response are in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than opposite to it.
103. Increased ADH secretion is likely after: sweating-induced dehydration in- creases
plasma osmolarity
104. The osmoregulatory process called secretion refers to the: selective elim- ination of
excess ions and toxins from body fluids
105. To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An
amino acid that is referred to as "nonessential" would be best described as one that: can be made by the animal's body from other substances
106. Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body, a
process known as: absorption
107. After ingestion by humans, the first category of macromolecules to be chemically
digested by enzymes in the mouth is: carbohydrates
108. An enzyme with high activity in an acidic environment is: pepsin
109. An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the
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124. The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves-
: cytotoxic T cells
125. Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a
pathogen in the correct sequence.
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lym- phocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.: iii-iv-ii-i-v
126. Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the
activation of: memory cells
127. Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers
during: gastrulation
128. Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual
reproduction when: a species is in the stable and favorable enviorments
129. sexual reproduction: can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival
of a population in a changing environment.
130. Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the: -
uretha
131. Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that: they both have the same number of
chromosomes.
132. Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the: oviduct
133. Although the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its
membrane potential does not exactly match the equilib- rium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also: slightly permeable to sodium ion
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134. In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential, the first of these
events that occurs is the: opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
135. Saltatory conduction is a term applied to: jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next
in a myelinated neuron.
136. Action potentials move along axons: more rapidly in myelinated than in non-
myelinated axons
137. If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730 years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth
the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?:
138. The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is
associated with: resting and digesting
139. A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be
expected to: prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential
140. After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by:
the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.
141. Neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap is accomplished by: impulses
causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the gap.
142. The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are:
sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
143. The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains: fluid and cells that can
undergo mechanosensory transduction
144. In the human retina: cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot
145. The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn in the
nasal cavity is an example of: sensory transduction
