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NSG 3280 Unit 3 Practice Questions
Q1. A patient presents with a vesicular rash that has been scratched and is now covered in yellow crust. The nurse is documenting the findings. Which interpretation of the skin lesions is most accurate? A. The rash consists solely of primary lesions. B. The vesicles are secondary lesions, and the crust is a primary lesion. C. The vesicles are primary lesions, and the crust represents a secondary lesion. D. Both the vesicle and the crust are considered primary lesions. Q2. A 35-year-old patient who works outdoors reports frequent outbreaks of Herpes simplex lesions on their lower lip. The patient asks what triggers the recurrence. The nurse should include which factors in the teaching plan? (Select All That Apply) A. Exposure to severe cold weather. B. Periods of significant psychological stress. C. Excessive sun exposure. D. The onset of the menstrual cycle. E. Consumption of highly acidic foods. Q3. A nurse is reviewing the charting for two patients diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Patient A has lesions on the face and mouth, and Patient B has lesions in the genital region. Based on the common locations, the nurse anticipates which viral distribution? A. Patient A has HSV-2; Patient B has HSV-1. B. Both patients likely have HSV-1. C. Patient A has HSV-1; Patient B has HSV-2. D. Both patients likely have HSV-2.
Q4. A patient is observed to have a cluster of new, fluid-filled lesions associated with a Herpes Simplex outbreak. The nurse anticipates that the lesions will follow which progression to resolution? A. Vesicles to pustules & ulcers to crust to resolution in 3-5 days. B. Pustules & ulcers to redness & vesicles to crust to resolution in 7 days. C. Redness & vesicles to pustules & ulcers to crust to healing in 10–14 days. D. Burning to redness & vesicles to pustules & ulcers to crust to healing in 10–14 days. Q5. A 72-year-old patient is diagnosed with Herpes Zoster (shingles). Which manifestation should the nurse prioritize in the assessment due to the potential for a severe complication? A. Unilateral vesicles following a nerve tract on the chest. B. Reports of pain that began months before the rash appeared. C. Vesicles appearing on the face that involve the eyes. D. Complaints of increased pain duration compared to a younger adult. Q6. The nurse is educating a patient newly diagnosed with Herpes Zoster. Which statement correctly describes the nature and progression of the rash? A. "The rash is usually found bilaterally across the trunk and fades quickly." B. "The virus lives latent in the trigeminal nerve and activates with sun exposure." C. "The rash consists of vesicles with a red base that follow a dermatome and are unilateral." D. "The lesions will likely dry out and crust within 3 days."
Q10. The nurse is discussing preventive measures with a patient diagnosed with Tinea cruris. The patient asks what Tinea cruris is. The nurse explains that it is a fungal infection affecting which body region? A. Foot B. Groin C. Face D. Hand Q11. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of four patients. Which patient is exhibiting a clinical manifestation consistent with a systemic yeast infection? A. Patient A: Yellow crusts on the face. B. Patient B: White patches inside the mouth (thrush). C. Patient C: Redness and irritation in skin folds (intertrigo). D. Patient D: Mucocutaneous candidiasis affecting multiple body systems. Q12. A mother brings her child in with small fluid-filled lesions that have ruptured, leaving thick, honey-colored crusts around the nose and mouth. The mother expresses concern about the spread. The nurse should educate the mother that this highly contagious bacterial infection is most often caused by which organisms? (Select All That Apply)
A. Streptococcus
B. Microsporum
C. Staphylococcus
D. Borrelia burgdorferi
Q13. A nurse is assessing a newborn for Seborrheic Dermatitis. Which term describes the typical manifestation in this age group? A. Pustules and ulcers. B. Cradle cap. C. Dandruff. D. Linear burrows. Q14. A patient is diagnosed with Psoriasis. The nurse understands that the pathophysiology of this condition involves the immune system promoting which activity? A. Massive collagen deposition and fibrosis. B. Sludging of sebaceous oils and loose skin cells. C. Defects in epidermal barrier protein filaggrin. D. Inflammation and hyperproliferation of skin cells. Q15. A patient presents with thickened, itchy skin (Lichenification), fine, dry scaling, and papules, primarily in the antecubital fossae. The patient reports a history of dry skin and constant itching. This presentation is most consistent with a defect in which epidermal components?
A. Sarcoptes scabiei burrowing into the stratum corneum.
B. Sludging of sebaceous oils in the follicular canal. C. Filaggrin protein and extracellular lipids (ceramides). D. Delayed acquired skin hypersensitivity to an allergen. Q16. A nurse is teaching an adolescent about factors that may contribute to the development or worsening of Acne Vulgaris. Which
A. Permanent scarring resembling a "saber cut." B. Secondary bacterial infection leading to yellow crust. C. Progression to post-herpetic neuralgia. D. Spread to nonexposed areas of the skin. Q20. A patient presents with fever, headache, and a macular rash starting on the wrists and ankles that is now spreading centrally. The patient reports a recent history of a tick bite. The nurse understands that for this tick-borne illness, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF), the tick must have been attached for at least how long? A. 30 minutes. B. 1–2 hours. C. 4–6 hours. D. 24 hours. Q21. A patient is admitted with suspected Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF). The nurse should monitor for which signs and symptoms associated with the progression of this illness? (Select All That Apply) A. Petechiae B. Joint pain in a few joints (Oligoarticular arthritis) C. Lethargy/confusion D. Generalized edema E. Cranial nerve deficits Q22. The characteristic rash of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever typically develops 4–8 days after a tick bite and is described as a
macular or maculopapular rash that first appears on which locations before spreading? A. Thighs, groin, or axilla. B. Lower back and scalp. C. Wrist or ankle. D. Lips, face, and mouth. Q23. A patient presents to the clinic with flu-like symptoms and a large red lesion with central clearing, resembling a "bulls-eye," on the groin. The nurse recognizes these findings as Stage 1 of which tick-borne illness? A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. B. Pediculosis. C. Lyme Disease. D. Scabies. Q24. A patient diagnosed with Lyme Disease several months ago returns with complaints of facial drooping and difficulty speaking. The nurse suspects the disease has progressed to Stage 2, which includes which neurologic manifestations? (Select All That Apply) A. Meningitis B. Permanent blindness C. Cranial Nerve palsies D. Peripheral neuropathy E. Post-herpetic neuralgia Q25. The nurse is teaching a community health class about prevention of tick-borne illnesses. Which animals should the nurse
Q28. During a home health visit, the patient reports finding small, itchy oval wheals with a red puncture mark, often in rows or clusters, on their skin upon waking. The patient suspects they have insects living on them. The nurse should explain that these manifestations are characteristic of Bedbugs, which exhibit which behavior? A. They live latent in nerve tissue. B. They feed on human blood and live in the patient's hair. C. They live in dark areas of the household and bite at night but do not live on the patient. D. They burrow into the skin to lay eggs. Q29. A cleaning crew is hired to treat an apartment infested with Bedbugs. The nurse advises the crew that these insects may be confirmed by which characteristic? A. They emit a foul odor when crushed. B. They feed exclusively on human hosts. C. They are the size of sand grains. D. They must be attached for 4–6 hours to transmit disease. Q30. A school nurse is conducting screening for Pediculosis
( capitis). Which finding is most indicative of an active infestation?
A. Vesicles with a red base following a dermatome. B. Oval wheals with red puncture marks in rows. C. Intense itchiness, particularly reported as worse at night. D. Red macules with central clearing on the scalp.
Q31. The nurse is teaching a parent about identifying and treating head lice. The nurse explains that the eggs, or nits, appear on the hair shaft close to the scalp and are approximately the size of which object? A. Sesame seeds (the size of the adult insect). B. Grains of sand. C. Small pea. D. Nickel. Q32. A patient is diagnosed with Diffuse Scleroderma. The nurse recognizes that this form of the disease is distinct from the Localized form due to which characteristic? A. It is considered benign and only affects one area of the skin. B. It often presents as a single incident that does not recur. C. It is progressive and fatal, affecting both the skin and internal organs. D. It only presents as violet-colored, firm inelastic macules and plaques. Q33. Which component is responsible for the characteristic hardening and fibrosis seen in Scleroderma? A. Hyperproliferation of skin cells. B. Infestation of mites in the stratum corneum. C. Massive collagen deposition and fibrosis in vessels. D. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen.
Q37. A healthcare provider suspects a patient has a bacterial skin
infection originating from Staphylococcus that is commonly carried
in the nasal area. This highly contagious infection is characterized by vesicles, pustules, and yellow crusts. Which diagnosis aligns with these findings? A. Impetigo B. Herpes Zoster C. Tinea faciei D. Acne Vulgaris Q38. Which of the following conditions involves an infestation where the organism burrows into the stratum corneum, triggering an allergic reaction characterized by intense itchiness?
A. Pediculosis ( capitis)
B. Bedbugs C. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D. Scabies
NSG 3280 Unit 2: ANSWERS & RATIONALES
Q1. A patient presents with a vesicular rash that has been scratched and is now covered in yellow crust. The nurse is documenting the findings. Which interpretation of the skin lesions is most accurate? A. The rash consists solely of primary lesions. B. The vesicles are secondary lesions, and the crust is a primary lesion. C. The vesicles are primary lesions, and the crust represents a secondary lesion. D. Both the vesicle and the crust are considered primary lesions. Answer: C Rationale: Primary lesions are defined as lesions as they originally appear. Secondary lesions are those that have been modified from their original appearance. A vesicle is an original lesion (primary), and the crust that forms afterward is a modification (secondary). Q2. A 35-year-old patient who works outdoors reports frequent outbreaks of Herpes simplex lesions on their lower lip. The patient asks what triggers the recurrence. The nurse should include which factors in the teaching plan? (Select All That Apply) A. Exposure to severe cold weather. B. Periods of significant psychological stress. C. Excessive sun exposure. D. The onset of the menstrual cycle. E. Consumption of highly acidic foods. Answer: B, C, D Rationale: The Herpes Simplex Virus lives latent in the nerve (most often the trigeminal) and reactivates during stress, sun exposure, and menstruation. Q3. A nurse is reviewing the charting for two patients diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Patient A has lesions on the face and mouth, and Patient B has lesions in the genital region. Based on the common locations, the nurse anticipates which viral distribution? A. Patient A has HSV-2; Patient B has HSV-1.
A. "The rash is usually found bilaterally across the trunk and fades quickly." B. "The virus lives latent in the trigeminal nerve and activates with sun exposure." C. "The rash consists of vesicles with a red base that follow a dermatome and are unilateral." D. "The lesions will likely dry out and crust within 3 days." Answer: C Rationale: Herpes Zoster vesicles have a red base, follow the dermatome (nerve track), and are unilateral, usually on the face and trunk. The whole process of popping up, drying out, and crusting takes 2–3 weeks. The virus lives latent in the spinal ganglia, not the trigeminal nerve. Q7. A nurse is caring for an 80-year-old patient who had Herpes Zoster lesions clear three months ago but still complains of severe, persistent pain in the same area. The nurse recognizes this as which common complication? A. Permanent blindness. B. Peripheral neuropathy. C. Post-herpetic neuralgia. D. Systemic mucocutaneous candidiasis. Answer: C Rationale: Post-herpetic neuralgia is defined as pain that continues after the skin lesions have cleared. This pain can last months to years and is more common in individuals over 60 years old. Q8. A parent brings a child to the clinic with red macules and plaques on the scalp that exhibit peripheral scaling and central clearing. The nurse suspects a superficial fungal infection. Which specific diagnosis will the healthcare provider likely document? A. Tinea pedis. B. Tinea corporis. C. Tinea barbae. D. Tinea captitis. Answer: D Rationale: Superficial fungal infections are referred to as “tinea”
followed by the skin region they are infecting. Tinea captitis specifically
refers to the scalp. Clinical manifestations of superficial fungus often include red macules or plaques with peripheral scaling and central clearing. Q9. Which pathogens are commonly responsible for superficial fungal infections known as "tinea"? (Select All That Apply)
A. Candida albicans
B. Epidermophyton
C. Microsporum
D. Staphylococcus
E. Trichophyton
Answer: B, C, E Rationale: Superficial fungal infections (tinea) are caused
by Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton. Candida albicans
causes yeast infections, and Staphylococcus causes bacterial skin infections
like Impetigo. Q10. The nurse is discussing preventive measures with a patient diagnosed with Tinea cruris. The patient asks what Tinea cruris is. The nurse explains that it is a fungal infection affecting which body region? A. Foot B. Groin C. Face D. Hand Answer: B Rationale: Tinea cruris refers to a superficial fungal infection of the groin. Q11. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of four patients. Which patient is exhibiting a clinical manifestation consistent with a systemic yeast infection? A. Patient A: Yellow crusts on the face. B. Patient B: White patches inside the mouth (thrush). C. Patient C: Redness and irritation in skin folds (intertrigo). D. Patient D: Mucocutaneous candidiasis affecting multiple body systems.
Answer: D Rationale: Psoriasis is a genetic condition where the immune system promotes inflammation and hyperproliferation of the skin cells. Q15. A patient presents with thickened, itchy skin (Lichenification), fine, dry scaling, and papules, primarily in the antecubital fossae. The patient reports a history of dry skin and constant itching. This presentation is most consistent with a defect in which epidermal components?
A. Sarcoptes scabiei burrowing into the stratum corneum.
B. Sludging of sebaceous oils in the follicular canal. C. Filaggrin protein and extracellular lipids (ceramides). D. Delayed acquired skin hypersensitivity to an allergen. Answer: C Rationale: Atopic Dermatitis (eczema) is characterized by defects in the epidermal barrier protein filaggrin, leading to decreased moisture and decreased extracellular lipids (ceramides) in the stratum corneum (outermost skin layer). Manifestations in older kids/adults include Lichenification, fine, dry scaling, and papules, along with itchiness. Q16. A nurse is teaching an adolescent about factors that may contribute to the development or worsening of Acne Vulgaris. Which factors should the nurse include in the discussion? (Select All That Apply) A. Heredity B. Exposure to acids or alkalis C. Stress D. Sex hormones E. Mechanical occlusion Answer: A, C, D, E Rationale: Etiologic factors for Acne Vulgaris include sex hormones, heredity, skin flora, stress, mechanical occlusion, and cosmetics. Exposure to acids or alkalis is related to Irritant Contact Dermatitis. Q17. The nurse explains the underlying pathophysiology of Acne Vulgaris to a patient. Which sequence accurately describes how the lesion develops?
A. Filaggrin defect decreased ceramides inflammation. B. Bacteria growth sludging of sebaceous oils sebaceous gland rupture. C. Sebaceous gland rupture inflammation sludging of sebaceous oils. D. Sludging of sebaceous oils and loose skin cells clog follicular canal bacteria growth sebaceous gland rupture inflammation. Answer: D Rationale: The pathophysiology of Acne Vulgaris involves sludging of sebaceous oils and loose skin cells, which clog the follicular canal, leading to bacteria growth, sebaceous gland rupture, and finally inflammation. Q18. A patient presents with intense itching, redness, and vesicle formation on their forearm after handling chemicals at work. The nurse suspects this is which type of dermatologic condition? A. Allergy Contact Dermatitis. B. Irritant Contact Dermatitis. C. Atopic Dermatitis. D. Scleroderma. Answer: B Rationale: Irritant Contact Dermatitis (CD) is a cutaneous reaction to a topical irritation after exposure to a high concentration of an irritant, such as acids, alkalis, or hydrocarbons. Manifestations include itching, redness, and vesicle formation on areas of exposure. Q19. A patient is diagnosed with Allergy Contact Dermatitis. The nurse provides discharge instructions, emphasizing the need to completely remove the allergen because the rash has the potential for which consequence? A. Permanent scarring resembling a "saber cut." B. Secondary bacterial infection leading to yellow crust. C. Progression to post-herpetic neuralgia. D. Spread to nonexposed areas of the skin. Answer: D Rationale: Clinical manifestations of Contact Dermatitis (both irritant and allergy) include itching, redness, and vesicle formation on areas of exposure. However, it can spread to a nonexposed area of skin if the allergen is not removed.
