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NCSF PRACTICE EXAM W/ EXPLANATIONS
What term represents the transfer of energy across joints to support voluntary movement? - Answers-kinetic chain Kinetic chain refers to the concept that energy transfers across joints to support voluntary actions. This is applicable during general movements such as running on a treadmill, where any energy that is not harnessed will be lost as heat and fail to contribute toward accomplishing the task. Successful energy transfer will result in a more stable and efficient environment, which is normally encouraged through closed- chain exercises. The posterior pelvic tilt seen in this picture, is commonly seen in bilateral leg exercises a result of tight ____________________. - Answers-glutes The hip extensors, including the glutes and proximal insertion of the hamstrings, are often found to be inflexible. Part of the reason for this common occurrence is attributed to the increased propensity to sit for long hours with flexed knees and rounded back. Improper seated posture causes posterior pelvic migration and reduced hip extensor length. Ankle dorsi flexion is caused by _________________. - Answers-a concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis A concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis would cause dorsi flexion of the ankle, as seen during the recovery phase of jogging. Weakness in the anterior tibialis has also been shown to increase the prevalence of shin splints among runners and falls among older adults. When performing biceps and triceps exercises, what joint action should occur at the shoulder? - Answers-no joint movement No movement should occur in the glenohumeral joint during arm exercises. The most common "cheat" error is flexing the hips and extending the shoulders during triceps exercises, and extending the hips and flexing the shoulders during bicep exercises. What exercise is used to cause elevation of the shoulder complex (scapulae and humerus)? - Answers-barbell shrug The trapezius musculature is comprised of three portions that serve distinct functions. The upper trapezius is responsible for shoulder elevation as seen during a shrug exercise, the middle trapezius aids in scapular rotation and the lower trapezius is primarily reserved for functions above 90 degrees of shoulder abduction. What is the natural curvature of the thoracic spine? - Answers-kyphotic curve
The thoracic spine naturally maintains a kyphotic curve. A kyphotic curvature rounds outward but should not be confused with the term kyphosis, which refers to an abnormally significant curvature commonly seen among the elderly. When performed correctly, what is the prime mover responsible for hip extension during the back squat? - Answers-gluteus maximus While the quadriceps are the prime mover for front squats, the glute maximus is the prime mover for the back squat when performed correctly. What back muscle is the prime mover for the seated row exercise as it is responsible for retraction of the scapula? - Answers-rhomboids Scapular retraction supersedes arm extension during the row and is further promoted through hyper-extension of the shoulder as controlled by the rhomboids. While the rhomboids do not attach to the arm they are heavily involved in rowing exercises such as the seated row, bent-over row and one-arm row. Which of the following exercises requires the greatest contribution from trunk stabilizers when using 80% 1RM? - Answers-barbell bent-over row Due to the horizontal postion of the body during the bent over row, the trunk must maintain a high level of stability from isometric muscle contractions. This partially explains why exercisers remain too vertical and have a hard time remaining in the proper position. The performance of dumbbell side raises occurs in what movement plane? - Answers- frontal The dumbbell side raise occurs in the frontal movement plane. The frontal plane bisects the body at the midaxillary line, splitting the body into equal front and back halves. Frontal-plane actions are performed when moving right or left and include ab/adduction exercises. What position of the knee is necessary to fully stretch the gastrocnemius when the ankle is in full dorsi flexion? - Answers-fully extended Since the gastrocnemius crosses the knee it must be extended to optimize the stretch. Active-isolation stretches for the calves actually use a constant contraction of the quadriceps to extend the knee along with anterior tibialis controlled dorsi flexion to optimize the gastrocnemius stretch. What muscles are used to globally stabilize the humerus during the bench press? - Answers-latissimus dorsi and deltoid
Mitochondria are the organelles responsible for aerobic metabolism in muscle cells. The Krebs cycle occurs within the mitochondria; a process in which ATP is formed using oxygen and energy substrates from sugar, fat and protein. Aerobic training increases the number of mitochondria within muscle What anabolic hormone is released in higher concentrations in response to heavy resistance training? - Answers-testosterone Whereas insulin-like growth factor is common to bodybuilding sets, testosterone release occurs with total-body loading at high intensities. Back squats and deadlifts are commonly sited as compound lifts that stimulate testosterone release following heavy sets. Insulin is another anabolic hormone but it functions to regulate metabolic functions, particularly sugar uptake by cells. Which pair of movements employ reciprocal inhibition in a training set aimed at improving strength and flexibility? - Answers-seated leg extension and hamstring stretch Since the quadriceps (agonist) pair with the hamstrings (antagonist) during knee extension, stretching the hamstrings following excitation of the quadriceps through resisted seated leg extension would create an ideal reciprocal match. Which of the following is the only energy substrate that can be metabolized aerobically or anaerobically to produce ATP? - Answers-glycogen Carbohydrates are the only energy-yielding nutrient that can be broken down aerobically or anaerobically to produce ATP. The storage form of carbohydrates in the body is glycogen (glucose + water). Glucose is unique in that it is the only nutrient that can be used to produce energy without oxygen. The anaerobic breakdown of glucose is referred to as glycolysis, which can fuel intense bouts of energy for up to about 90 seconds. Aerobic breakdown of glucose occurs through the Krebs cycle using pyruvate, and can fuel lower-intensity exercise for a much longer duration. What type of contraction is performed by the abdominals and erector spinae muscle group during the performance of a push-up? - Answers-isometric An isometric contraction is performed by the abdominals and the erector spinae muscle group during the performance of a push-up, in accordance with the natural activity of local stabilizers. An isometric contraction creates an increase in muscle tension without changing any joint angles. In the case of a push-up, the abdominals and erector spinae help maintain the flat back position seen with proper technique. What physiological response occurs when lactate builds up in the blood? - Answers- respiration rates increase
When lactate accumulates in the blood, pH decreases. This triggers a buffering response by the body to prevent acidosis. Respiration rate increases sharply to aid in oxygen delivery, to neutralize blood pH. What has the greatest impact on relative hormonal response during exercise? - Answers-intensity of exercise Intensity predicts the stress and metabolic demands of the body, consequentially triggering hormones to manage the internal condition. The higher the intensity of exercise, the more dramatic the hormone response to address the stress and energy demands. The more experienced the exerciser to the training environment the more adapted the hormone system will be to manage the stress. Chronological age does affect hormone response, but not to the extent of the prior. What causes the protein-sparing mechanism to shut off during exercise? - Answers- .inadequate carbohydrates Protein sparing occurs when adequate fuel is available and blood glucose levels can be maintained. When inadequate calories create low glycogen stores, with subsequent inadequate blood glucose, the body responds by sparing glycogen. Therefore, exercise with inadequate carbohydrates will cause protein catabolism to fuel ongoing physical activities. Besides differences in muscle mass and strength capabilities, why do females have lower cardiac outputs compared to males? - Answers-smaller relative heart size Females have disadvantages for high VO2max values compared to men. They have smaller hearts relative to their size, which lowers oxygen delivery due to reduced cardiac output and less relative muscle mass which reduces capabilities for oxygen extraction. However, females do have capacities to improve with training similar to males, but not to the same peak levels. To optimize aerobic capacity the body increases oxygen delivery and extraction by adding: - Answers-capillaries The body does not have the ability to add muscles and valves but can increase capillary density in a process called angiogenesis. Adding capillaries increases oxygen delivery to muscles and improves the diffusion of gases and nutrients. Additionally, the body adds mitochondria to process the energy to improve aerobic fitness. Why is it recommended to perform static stretches following exercise, and not before? - Answers-it is optimal as the body is warm pre-exercise static stretching can reduce power output it can help with the cool down and return to a homeostatic state
The soleus is a local postural stabilizer of the ankle. Due to its role in tibial position management it does not cross the knee as a mover. The high slow-twitch fiber density helps it maintain the tibia angle for potentially long periods of time during upright posture. To isolate the soleus one should perform a seated calf raise. The trapezius, gluteus medius, and obliques function as global movers and global stabilizers during activity. Which of the following recommendations would directly reduce the risk for heart disease? - Answers-reducing chronic psychological stress Negative stress is referred to as distress. Reducing chronic stress has been shown to have an immediate impact on reducing the risk for heart disease. Chronic stress elevates blood pressure and blood lipids; increasing the risk for vascular damage. This in turn elevates the risk for a cardiac event such as a heart attack. Advancing age and disease reduce vessel responsiveness called ______________ which increases risk for cardiovascular disease and stroke. - Answers-vascular compliance Vascular compliance is defined as the ability of blood vessels to expand and contract, often measured as elasticity. Less compliant blood vessels no longer retain their ability to expand during hypertensive situations; causing further increases in blood pressure and vascular wall damage. Adaptations to aerobic exercise include increases in the diameter of blood vessels as well as improved compliance. These adaptations reduce the workload of the heart by decreasing peripheral resistance. Which type of exercise is most associated with measures of health and life expectancy?
- Answers-aerobic Aerobic training has the greatest impact on life expectancy through adaptations that impact a variety of physiological systems. Aerobic training has been independently associated with reducing mortality risk from cardiovascular disease (CVD), coronary heart disease, hypertension, colon cancer and non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. While all safe exercise can provide benefits, aerobic exercise supports the systems at greatest risk for disease. What affect does routine, moderate-intensity aerobic training have on one's blood lipid profile? - Answers-HDL will increase An increase in HDL cholesterol can be seen with weekly aerobic training. High-density lipoproteins (HDL) are produced by the liver and serve a protective role in preventing arterial plaque formation, which can be increased with the presence of high LDL. An increase in HDL will facilitate increased transport of LDL cholesterol out of circulation. Specifically, HDL will carry LDL back to the liver (where it is formed); thwarting its immediate contribution to the progression of vascular disease.
Increased midsection girth with age is a concern because: - Answers-android obesity is linked with heart disease Android obesity is a term used to describe fat storage within the midsection of the human body, representing both subcutaneous and visceral fat. It is a major health concern based on its known relationship with heart disease. Android obesity is associated with an "apple-shape physique" and is dangerous because visceral fat cells release cytokines (chemicals) which promote systemic inflammation. What adaptation to aerobic exercise reduces heart rates at rest and during sub-maximal exercise? - Answers-increased stroke volume Increased stroke volume is an adaptation of the heart associated with appropriately- prescribed aerobic training. Aerobic training is known to increase the left ventricle's contractile strength which increases the volume of blood expelled per contraction (stroke volume). What negative affect does trans fat have on blood lipid profiles? - Answers-reduced HDL Trans fatty acids in the diet can lower HDL cholesterol and raise LDL cholesterol in the blood. The man-made fat is common in processed foods. Trans fat is used to adjust the textures of baked, fried and fast food products and should be avoided. The World Health Organization recommends it make up less than 1% of the diet. What is the most unhealthy behavior as measured by risk for heart disease? - Answers- smoking cigarettes Quitting smoking would have the greatest impact on health since smokers have about a 70% greater level of risk for heart disease and stroke. Research has shown that following 15 years of quitting smoking, the risk of developing cardiovascular disease can approach that of a non-smoker. Alcohol is also damaging to the body, but when consumed in moderation presents limited risk. Caffeine and diet soda have not been identified as a risk factor for any disease but may impact sleep patterns. Improving quality of life by promoting healthy lifestyle habits will have a greater impact on overall health and well-being than any specific single action. What positive change can be expected from an aerobic exercise intervention for a hypertensive client lasting several months? - Answers-a reduction of blood pressure by 10 points With a properly-executed exercise program, 3 months of training would plausibly reduce blood pressure by 8-11 mmHg. It is believed that these changes are brought about by alterations in the sympathetic nervous system that reduce peripheral resistance and increases renal secretion of sodium. Basically, an individual's arteries are able to
When arteries narrow they increase the rate of blood flow much like placing a thumb on the end of a hose. This increase causes microtears in the vessel which start the cascade of events leading to coronary artery disease. Which of the following identifies the correct body fat classification for morbid obesity? - Answers-.Males - 30%; Females - 40% Body fat levels above 30% for males and 40% for females are classified as morbid obesity and require a medical referral. Stage 1 Obesity can be classified using a BMI score of 30 or by a body fat percentage of 25% for males and 32% for females - which do not warrant medical referral. Female threshold values are higher due to the sex characteristics that promote and require higher fat storage. When working with elderly clients, what type of exercise is important to incorporate into the program? - Answers-closed-chain balance training Closed-chain balance training should be incorporated into a comprehensive program for elderly clients due to their elevated risk for falling and related accidents. Closed-chain training, when appropriately applied, will greatly improve the nervous system's ability to manage various forces, both in a static and dynamic nature. Programming dynamic balance will also help improve confidence, the client's overall quality of life and performance during day-to-day activities. Prior to performing a submaximal VO2max test on a 54 year-old male client, the trainer should assess the client's: - Answers-risk factors Guidelines require performing a risk factor screening assessment prior to exercise participation including testing. Not only will it be used to identify areas of concern and establish the client's exercise participation level, it will also help create an appropriate testing battery and action plan for training. Why do some assessments of anaerobic fitness, such as the abdominal curl-up and 5- min step test, require the use of a metronome? - Answers-to maintain a constant pace of movement The maintenance of a constant pattern of movement without rest is required in specific fitness assessments such as the abdominal curl-up and step tests to optimize movement control. Consistent movement timing reduces the risk of poor pacing and injury as well as prevents the use of momentum to aid in additional repetitions. _______ is a subjective measure of a client's feelings related to their physical effort. - Answers-RPE Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) is a subjective measure of a client's feelings related to their physical effort. RPE commonly uses the Borg scale (6-20) as the guide for effort. While RPE varies between individuals, strong correlations have been found across
large populations; cementing its usefulness in assessing client stress during exercise. RPE is specifically helpful among clients who take medications, including beta-blockers, that suppress the normal heart rate response to exercise. Your client indicates a previous surgery on her left knee when completing the Health Status Questionnaire. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer? - Answers-ask follow-up questions concerning the injury and any rehabilitation she completed The appropriate response for the trainer would be to ask follow-up questions concerning the injury, surgery and rehabilitation. Answers to the follow-up questions are essential when planning the most appropriate course of action. The severity of the injury as well as the comprehensiveness of any rehab will determine the starting point for exercise prescription. However, further testing specific to the left knee joint (e.g., flexibility and stability testing) would be appropriate in creating the most effective program. Identify the correct order of events when initiating activity for a new client. - Answers- informed consent, health status questionnaire, screening, exercise testing The correct order of events when working with a new client is to first implement the informed consent process, followed by the health status questionnaire (HSQ). The trainer can then perform any resting assessments and screen the client. Once cleared for exercise, the client can perform physical activity tests. The informed consent should always be first, as it informs and requests voluntary permission for health screening, fitness evaluations and exercise participation. This document will notify the participant of the inherent risks and facts about the subsequent testing/exercise. The HSQ is part of the screening process as it is used to help the trainer identify potential limitations and risks to activity participation. Your new, 54 year-old male client is 250 lbs. and has 25% body fat. What should you recommend to him regarding his initial participation in aerobic activity to lose weight? - Answers-To reduce the risk for injury, start with low-impact activities using a steady- state heart rate to acclimate him to exercise With individuals that have a high level of body fat and are new to exercise, it is prudent to perform any aerobic work using low-impact activities. High-impact activities such as running increase the risk for overuse and orthopedic injuries among new exercisers. Likewise, high-intensity programs are not well-tolerated and are often contraindicated for obese individuals. Which assessment of aerobic fitness is most commonly used for a 14 year-old boy? - Answers-1 mile run test The most appropriate assessment of aerobic fitness for a 14 year-old boy would be the one mile run test. Children can perform short bouts (10 minutes) of intense aerobic exercise on an intermittent basis. Care should be provided to ensure conditions account
Clients with hypertension should avoid performing heavy resistance training sets as well as holding their breath. This is due to the increased stress placed upon the heart and vascular system during high-intensity resistance training. Resistance training for individuals with high blood pressure should not exceed intensities associated with 12- 15 repetitions, nor include heavy compressive exercises such as the leg press. Your client complains of anterior shoulder pain which is aggravated when performing overhead lifts; what is the correct course of action? - Answers-Document the actions that causes pain and avoid related activities When a client experiences pain during a specific movement, the correct course of action is to stop performing the activity, document the issue and avoid activities at the site of pain. Training through pain can aggravate the injury and would be considered negligent. A lack of oxygen to tissue causing pain and discomfort is termed: - Answers-Ischemia Ischemia is defined as an insufficient supply of O2 to tissues, which may result acutely from intense training, or chronically from disease. Ischemia is also evident when restricted blood flow to the heart brings about chest pain (angina pectoris) or restricted delivery to the legs causes pain from peripheral vascular disease (most associated with diabetes). Routine aerobic training has been shown to improve myocardial ischemia by enhancing both coronary blood flow and oxygen utilization within the cardiac tissue. It is recommended that client files be maintained for at least 3 years upon their completion date due to: - Answers-.Statutes of liability limitations can carry out that long Statutes vary from state-to-state, but in general, three years is the minimum safe duration of time. Electronic files and copies are considered appropriate forms to avoid paper work. Which abdominal measures in inches are considered a disease risk factor for men and women? - Answers-Male 40, female 35 Abdominal or central girth measures of 40 inches or more for males and 35 inches or more for females, respectively, is considered a high risk predictor for inflammatory obesity, metabolic disease, and cardiovascular disease. Which document is a useful tool in reducing liability due to the understanding of risk? - Answers-Informed consent The informed consent provides the client with details of the possible risks and expectations of exercise participation so they can make an informed decision to participate in the activities. While a signed informed consent protects the personal trainer against claims that the individual was not informed of the protocols and
associated risks of training, it does not protect against negligence. The informed consent should always be the first document completed in the screening process. Which of the following is a key recommendation when creating an exercise prescription for an obese client? - Answers-select low-impact activities during aerobic exercise to minimize the risk of injury Exercise prescription for an obese client should include low-impact activities during aerobic exercise to minimize the risk of injury and over-exertion common of new exercisers. High-impact exercises such as treadmill running can cause severe DOMS or overuse injuries (e.g., shin splints). Likewise, obese individuals often prefer slower speeds and higher resistance over faster activities - such as changes in grade over speed. Your client hurts her knee while performing a step-up. She is in noticeable pain but does not want to stop the session. What is the correct course of action? - Answers- Recommend she have a medical professional analyze the injury and document the incident When any injury occurs during a training session it should be formally documented for trainer protection. A follow-up by a medical professional can quickly ascertain problems, resolutions or provide clearance. Further injury is the greatest risk of an existing injury. The label on a nutrition bar states that it contains 40 grams of carbohydrates and 10 grams of sugar. What percentage of the carbohydrates represent sugars? - Answers- 25% Dividing 10 grams (sugar) by 40 grams (total carbs) would equal 0.25, or 25%. Sugar is always listed on the food label as part of the total carbohydrates included as well as an independent nutritional factor. Adequate intake of __________ is vital for individuals with hypertension due to its relationship with sodium. - Answers-potassium Sodium and potassium function cooperatively through nutrient balance. While potassium should usually be consumed at levels that surpass sodium, many people overconsume sodium and under-consume potassium. Potassium is essential for proper nerve and muscle function due to its role in cellular fluid and solute regulation throughout the body. During extended periods of endurance exercise, such as training for a marathon, which energy-yielding nutrient contributes up to 15% of the body's energy needs? - Answers- protein Protein contributes up to 15% of the body's energy needs during extended aerobic training, and in very limited amounts during any other time. Protein contributes to
increased possibility for kidney and heart dysfunction as well as heat stroke during exhaustive exercise. Increased vasodilation occurs with use of which supplement? - Answers-nitric oxide Nitric oxide has been shown to increase vasodilation and is purported to assist metabolic regulation of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids. Nitric oxide has become popular with exercise enthusiasts; however, there is no conclusive evidence indicating improvements in performance following supplementation beyond placebo effect. What is the minimum grams of fiber recommended in the daily diet? - Answers- 20 The recommended daily intake for fiber is 20-35 grams; most Americans do not consume adequate amounts due to low intake of plant foods. Fiber, which goes mostly undigested due to its chemical make-up, can be either soluble or insoluble. Adequate consumption of plant sources can reduce the risk for many diseases. .____________ content lowers the insulin response to a meal - Answers-Fiber Fiber decreases gastric emptying rate and slows the blood glucose absorption process, thereby reducing insulin effects. This positively manages glucose levels and lowers the negative impact of insulin on lipid metabolism. Consuming ___________ prior to aerobic exercise reduces catabolism of proteins. - Answers-Carbohydrates Carbohydrate consumption and storage directly affect the protein-sparing mechanism. Likewise, a balance of calories from carbohydrate and protein following exercise enhances recovery metabolism. Therefore, both assist lean mass maintenance. _________ is an amino acid which is purported to stimulate the growth hormone production. - Answers-L-arginine L-arginine is an amino acid that functions in the process of growth hormone management. Supplementation has not provided scientifically-significant ergogenic benefits to date. Glutamine is an anticorticoid agent protecting muscle protein while leucine and valine serve as two of the three branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs). Which of the following is true concerning circumference (girth) measurements when used as a body composition assessment? - Answers-they have limited accuracy for individuals with large amounts of muscle mass While girth/circumference measurements are very applicable with overweight individuals; they have limited accuracy for individuals with large amounts of muscle mass inclusive of athletes. Girth/circumference measurements do not take into account the volume of each respective tissue at each site of measurement. For lean individuals
with larger quantities of muscle, a skinfold assessment would be more appropriate. For those who are very muscular but also maintain higher fat, hydrostatic weighing would be more useful. Your client is a 17 year-old male trying to add muscle mass. Which of the following would be a healthy dietary recommendation to support his resistance training program that includes four days of exercise each week? - Answers-he should strive for a positive caloric balance of roughly 150-450 calories per day to ensure he meets his protein requirements When a client is trying to add muscle mass, the healthy recommendation would be to consume a positive caloric balance of roughly 150-450 kcal per day. Combining resistance training with the additional caloric intake (and a focus on quality proteins) would help him achieve his goal. In some circumstances among those who are resistant to gaining weight, consuming 500-750 kcal above daily requirements may be needed. All of the following will increase testing accuracy for a skinfold assessment, except: - Answers-Pinching at least 7 sites Adding more sites to a skinfold assessment does not increase accuracy when proper density equations are use. In fact, 7- and 12-site measures are associated with increased tester error due to the amount of technician involvement. Repeat 3- and 4- fold sites have an estimation error of about 4% (3.5%). All of the following are associated with a calorically-restrictive or starvation diets, except:
- Answers-the body experiences an increase in metabolism The body reduces metabolic activity as less calories are consumed. The first stage occurs in response to a reduced thermic effect and total metabolism. The second is in association with mass reduction which further lowers metabolism; particularly as muscle is catabolized. Females with a body fat % of _______ and males with a body fat % of _______ are classified as obese. - Answers-32%; 25% Females who have 32% body fat and males who have 25% body fat are classified as obese. The higher value for females is due to fat storage as a result of secondary sex characteristics. A common error is to confuse body fat percentages with BMI. BMI is a product of height and weight, with obese classifications starting at 30.0. After calculating your client's resting metabolic rate to be ~2,200 calories/day, she performs a 24-hour food recall which indicates approximately 2,500 calories were consumed. What can you determine from this information? - Answers-nothing until you calculate voluntary caloric expenditure
sessions per week would have the greatest desired adaptation effect? - Answers-4 sets per exercise at 65% 1RM, 15 reps, 30-45 second rest intervals, total body emphasis Higher and very low repetition ranges reduce muscle architectural changes. Low reps at 1 - 3 works the nervous system while high reps over 15 work the metabolic system. 15 reps equal about 45 seconds of time-under-tension, with a 1:1 to 1:0.75 ratio. This type of training is specifically geared towards caloric expenditure with a side benefit of maintaining lean mass. However, due the elevated time-under-tension (>20 minutes), it may not be feasible for a novice client unaccustomed to resistance training. When reducing dietary fat intake, _________ should make up the majority of dietary lipids consumed? - Answers-Monounsaturated fat Monounsaturated fatty acids are cardiovascularly-benign. Common to the Mediterranean diet these fatty acids should represent between 15-20% of the fats in the diet. Saturated fat should be less than 10%, and polyunsaturated fats generally reach up to 15%. Trans fatty acids should be avoided. .Proper execution of the single-leg Romanian deadlift will dynamically stretch the: - Answers-gastrocnemius The Romanian deadlift will dynamically stretch the gastrocnemius during the eccentric portion of the movement when performed in a split stance and even more so on a single leg. It is well known that the hamstrings are stretched as well as strengthened during the movement, but the greater range attainable when performing a single-leg variation will allow for additional lengthening of the gastrocnemius. The risk of blood pooling after a high-intensity training session is minimized by ___________. - Answers-a cool down segment An appropriate cool down will help minimize blood pooling after a high-intensity training session. A proper cool down should include full range of motion movements that mimic the exercises included in the resistance training bout to bring the body back to a pre- exercise state. The emphasis should be on fluid movements that are continuous enough to mobilize circulating blood in venous structures. The device used to measure specific joint angles during a flexibility assessment is referred to as a ____________. - Answers-goniometer The goniometer is a device used to directly measure joint angles. Goniometric measurements help identify range of motion deficits which can potentially contribute to injury. While valid and reliable as a form of assessment, successful readings are determined by protocol strictness and technician expertise. Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) can result in: - Answers-an increase in the metabolic rate
One way metabolism is influenced by exercise is through excess post-exercise oxygen consumption, commonly referred to as EPOC. It can increase the metabolic rate and improve a client's success of obtaining a negative caloric balance. Moderate-to-high intensity resistance and aerobic interval training have both been shown to positively impact short- and long-term EPOC responses. Normal EPOC is about 5-10% of the total calories expended and is associated with greater time-under-tension and total musculature employed. Which back exercise employs the biceps to the greatest degree? - Answers-Chin-ups Switching from a pronated grip to a supinated grip will allow for greater biceps activation when performing back exercises. The chin-up uses a supinated grip which still targets the back musculature, but also increases demands placed upon the elbow flexors. A dramatic increase in what cardiovascular measurement is a risk factor during aerobic training? - Answers-diastolic blood pressure Diastolic blood pressure should increase to only a limited degree during aerobic training
- a dramatic increase would be considered a risk factor. Systolic blood pressure increases in a linear fashion based on the physiological demands placed upon the heart. Cardiovascular (aerobic) training increases stroke volume, but it levels off below the exercise intensities used for cardiovascular improvements; causing heart rate to continue to rise to meet oxygen demands. Of added relevance, systolic blood pressure and heart rate are the two components of the rate pressure product (RPP); a value which measures the oxygen demands of the heart (stress). Exercising at high altitudes is difficult for individuals who are not accustomed to it because: - Answers-there is less oxygen in the air The partial pressure of oxygen in the air is reduced at high altitudes; causing increases in heart rate and respiratory rate to match the oxygen demands of working tissues. Athletes acclimated to higher altitudes attain higher concentrations of circulating hemoglobin and EPO as a specific adaptation. Approximately how many calories does the body use per liter of consumed oxygen? - Answers-5 calories Approximately 5 calories are utilized per liter of oxygen consumed. Oxygen consumption as a measure of caloric expenditure is simplified when using metabolic equivalents (METs). METs represent the amount of oxygen used by the body at a given time. For instance, rest = 1 MET; whereas walking = 2.8 METs. METS x .001 x BW (kg) x minutes performed x 5 kcal = Total calories burned
