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Practice Exam
Question 1. Which term best describes the difference between the closeness of repeated measurements to each other? A) Accuracy B) Precision C) Reliability D) Validity Answer: B Explanation: Precision refers to the consistency of repeated measurements, whereas accuracy indicates closeness to the true value. Question 2. In a client‑server architecture, which component initiates a request for a service? A) Server B) Database C) Client D) Middleware Answer: C Explanation: The client is the entity that sends a request to the server, which then processes and returns a response. Question 3. Which phase of the Waterfall model follows the design stage? A) Requirements gathering B) Implementation C) Testing D) Maintenance Answer: B
Practice Exam
Explanation: After designing the system, the Waterfall model proceeds to the implementation (coding) phase. Question 4. Which KPI measures the number of transactions completed per second? A) Latency B) Throughput C) Error rate D) Utilization Answer: B Explanation: Throughput quantifies how many units of work a system processes in a given time interval. Question 5. When installing a new development environment, which file typically contains environment‑specific variables? A) README.md B) .gitignore C) .env D) setup.cfg Answer: C Explanation: The .env file stores key‑value pairs for configuration such as database URLs and API keys. Question 6. In CRUD operations, which HTTP method is conventionally used to update an existing resource? A) GET B) POST
Practice Exam
Question 9. Which UI principle ensures that all interactive elements are reachable via keyboard alone? A) Consistency B) Responsiveness C) Accessibility D) Aesthetics Answer: C Explanation: Accessibility includes keyboard navigation, screen‑reader support, and sufficient contrast. Question 10. Input validation that checks for correct data type, length, and format is an example of what? A) Sanitization B) Encryption C) Authentication D) Authorization Answer: A Explanation: Validation verifies that input conforms to expected rules before processing; sanitization removes dangerous content. Question 11. Which log level typically records detailed debugging information? A) INFO B) WARN C) ERROR D) DEBUG Answer: D
Practice Exam
Explanation: DEBUG level logs are verbose and intended for developers to trace program flow. Question 12. A stack trace is most useful for diagnosing which type of problem? A) Network latency B) Logical errors in code execution C) Disk space exhaustion D) User authentication failures Answer: B Explanation: Stack traces reveal the sequence of function calls leading to an exception, aiding in pinpointing logical bugs. Question 13. Caching frequently accessed data primarily improves which performance metric? A) Latency B) Throughput C) Error rate D) Availability Answer: A Explanation: By storing data closer to the requester, caching reduces the time needed to retrieve it, lowering latency. Question 14. Load balancing distributes traffic across multiple servers to achieve what? A) Higher latency B) Single point of failure C) Horizontal scalability D) Reduced security
Practice Exam
D) Network throughput Answer: B Explanation: CPU utilization measures the percentage of processing capacity consumed. Question 18. In RESTful APIs, which HTTP status code indicates that the request was successful and resulted in a new resource being created? A) 200 OK B) 201 Created C) 202 Accepted D) 204 No Content Answer: B Explanation: 201 signals that the server has fulfilled the request and a new resource exists. Question 19. Which protocol provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting HTTP traffic? A) FTP B) SMTP C) HTTPS D) Telnet Answer: C Explanation: HTTPS uses TLS/SSL to encrypt data transmitted via HTTP. Question 20. Horizontal scaling differs from vertical scaling in that it adds ___ rather than ___? A) CPU cores; memory B) Servers; resources to a single server
Practice Exam
C) Storage; compute power D) Users; administrators Answer: B Explanation: Horizontal scaling adds more machines; vertical scaling upgrades resources (CPU, RAM) of an existing machine. Question 21. Which testing type validates that individual functions behave as intended in isolation? A) Integration testing B System testing C) Unit testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Unit tests focus on single components, often using mocks for dependencies. Question 22. A test case that checks system behavior at the maximum allowed input size is an example of a ___ test. A) Smoke B) Load C) Boundary D) Regression Answer: C Explanation: Boundary testing examines edge conditions such as minimum and maximum values. Question 23. Which automation tool is commonly used for web UI testing?
Practice Exam
Question 26. Which architectural pattern separates data handling, user interface, and business logic into distinct layers? A) Microservices B) Layered (n‑tier) architecture C) Event‑driven architecture D) Peer‑to‑peer Answer: B Explanation: The n‑tier model typically includes presentation, business, and data layers. Question 27. In Agile Scrum, what is the time‑boxed meeting called where the team plans the work for the next sprint? A) Daily stand‑up B) Sprint Review C) Sprint Retrospective D) Sprint Planning Answer: D Explanation: Sprint Planning defines the sprint goal and backlog items to be completed. Question 28. Which diagram is most appropriate for showing interactions between objects over time? A) Class diagram B) Sequence diagram C) Entity‑relationship diagram E) Flowchart Answer: B Explanation: Sequence diagrams depict object lifelines and the order of messages.
Practice Exam
Question 29. What does the term “idempotent” mean in the context of HTTP methods? A) The method can be called only once B) Repeating the request has the same effect as a single call C) The method always returns a 200 status code D) The method requires authentication Answer: B Explanation: Idempotent methods (GET, PUT, DELETE) produce the same result no matter how many times they are repeated. Question 30. Which of the following is a characteristic of a monolithic application? A) Independent deployment of services B) Single executable containing all functionality C) Use of message queues for communication D) Separate databases per module Answer: B Explanation: Monoliths bundle all features into one deployable unit. Question 31. In a relational database, a foreign key constraint ensures ___? A) Uniqueness of a column B) Non‑null values only C) Referential integrity between tables D) Automatic indexing Answer: C Explanation: Foreign keys enforce that a value must exist in the referenced primary‑key column.
Practice Exam
Explanation: The Factory Method encapsulates object creation, allowing subclasses to decide which class to instantiate. Question 35. Which HTTP header is used to control caching behavior? A) Authorization B) Content-Type C) Cache-Control D) User-Agent Answer: C Explanation: Cache-Control directives (e.g., no‑cache, max‑age) instruct browsers and proxies how to cache responses. Question 36. In a CI/CD pipeline, which stage typically runs automated unit tests? A) Build B) Deploy C) Test D) Release Answer: C Explanation: The Test stage executes various automated tests, including unit, integration, and functional tests. Question 37. Which of the following is an example of a non‑functional requirement? A) User can upload a profile picture B) System shall process 1,000 transactions per second C) Admin can delete a user account D) Search results are sorted alphabetically
Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Non‑functional requirements describe performance, security, reliability, etc., not specific functionality. Question 38. What does the term “hot standby” refer to in disaster recovery? A) A backup that is never turned on B) A secondary system that runs simultaneously and can take over instantly C) A manual failover procedure D) Archival storage on tape Answer: B Explanation: Hot standby maintains a live replica ready for immediate switchover. Question 39. Which of the following best describes “eventual consistency” in distributed databases? A) All reads are guaranteed to be up‑to‑date B) Data becomes consistent after a propagation delay C) Transactions are never rolled back D) The system blocks writes during replication Answer: B Explanation: Eventual consistency allows temporary divergence, with the guarantee that replicas will converge. Question 40. In object‑oriented programming, which concept allows a subclass to provide a specific implementation of a method defined in its superclass? A) Encapsulation B) Inheritance
Practice Exam
B) Transactions that produce the same result no matter how many times they are applied C) Transactions that must be executed in a specific order D) Transactions that always commit successfully Answer: B Explanation: An idempotent transaction yields identical state after repeated execution. Question 44. Which of the following best describes a “microservice”? A) A monolithic application split into layers B) A small, independent service that performs a single business capability C) A client‑side library for UI rendering D) A database replication technique Answer: B Explanation: Microservices are autonomous services that communicate over a network. Question 45. In a relational schema, which normal form eliminates multi‑valued dependencies? A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) 4NF Answer: D Explanation: Fourth Normal Form (4NF) addresses multi‑valued dependencies, ensuring each attribute is dependent on the primary key only. Question 46. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using containerization?
Practice Exam
A) Increased hardware cost B) Platform‑specific binaries only C) Consistent runtime environment across machines D) Manual dependency management Answer: C Explanation: Containers package code and dependencies, guaranteeing the same behavior on any host. Question 47. Which HTTP method is considered safe because it does not modify server state? A) POST B) PUT C) DELETE D) GET Answer: D Explanation: GET retrieves data without causing side effects, making it a safe method. Question 48. Which of the following best describes “latency jitter”? A) Average delay of packets B) Variation in packet delay over time C) Total number of lost packets D) Bandwidth saturation Answer: B Explanation: Jitter measures the inconsistency in latency, important for real‑time applications.
Practice Exam
Explanation: Waterfall follows a linear, phase‑by‑phase progression. Question 52. In a REST API, which status code indicates that the client must authenticate to gain access? A) 200 OK B) 301 Moved Permanently C) 401 Unauthorized D) 403 Forbidden Answer: C Explanation: 401 signals that authentication is required and has failed or not been provided. Question 53. Which of the following is an example of a “soft” real‑time system? A) Air‑traffic control radar B) Video streaming service C) Nuclear reactor control D) Heart‑beat monitor with strict deadlines Answer: B Explanation: Soft real‑time systems aim for timely responses but can tolerate occasional delays. Question 54. Which of the following best describes a “deadlock” in concurrent programming? A) Two threads executing the same code simultaneously B) A situation where each of two or more threads is waiting for the other to release a resource C) A thread that never starts D) A memory leak causing program slowdown
Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Deadlock occurs when cyclic waiting prevents progress. Question 55. In an MVC framework, which component handles user input and updates the model? A) Model B) View C) Controller D) Service Answer: C Explanation: The Controller receives input, processes it, and manipulates the Model. Question 56. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a CDN (Content Delivery Network)? A) Centralized data storage B) Reduced latency for end‑users by serving content from edge locations C) Automatic database indexing D) Increased server CPU usage Answer: B Explanation: CDNs replicate static assets near users, decreasing load times. Question 57. Which of the following best defines “throughput” in a database context? A) Time taken to execute a single query B) Number of transactions processed per unit time C) Amount of data stored on disk
