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Question 1. Which primary flight control surface primarily produces roll about the longitudinal axis? A) Elevator B) Aileron C) Rudder D) Flap Answer: B Explanation: Ailerons are mounted on the trailing edge of each wing and move differentially to generate rolling moments. Question 2. What aerodynamic phenomenon causes the wing with the upward‑deflected aileron to experience increased induced drag, resulting in adverse yaw? A) Wingtip vortices B) Increased camber C) Increased angle of attack on the rising wing D) Reduced lift on the descending wing Answer: C Explanation: Raising an aileron increases the local angle of attack, producing more lift and more induced drag, which yaws the aircraft opposite to the roll direction. Question 3. In a Frise‑type aileron, what purpose does the protruding leading edge of the up‑deflected aileron serve? A) It reduces lift on the opposite wing. B) It creates drag on the rising wing to counter adverse yaw. C) It increases the wing’s structural stiffness. D) It enhances roll rate at low speeds. Answer: B Explanation: The protruding nose pushes into the airflow, generating drag that helps offset adverse yaw. Question 4. Which control system interconnects the rudder and ailerons to improve coordinated turns on some light aircraft?
A) Fly‑by‑wire B) Wing‑leveler C) Trim‑tab linkage D) Hydraulic booster Answer: B Explanation: A wing‑leveler automatically applies rudder when ailerons are moved, aiding coordination. Question 5. The elevator is primarily linked to which cockpit control? A) Throttle lever B) Control wheel or stick C) Pedals D) Trim knob Answer: B Explanation: Moving the control wheel or stick forward or aft deflects the elevator, changing pitch. Question 6. How does increasing elevator deflection upward affect angle of attack and airspeed in steady, level flight? A) Increases angle of attack and decreases airspeed. B) Decreases angle of attack and increases airspeed. C) Increases angle of attack and increases airspeed. D) No effect on either. Answer: A Explanation: Pulling back raises the nose, increasing AoA, which raises lift but also increases drag, reducing airspeed unless thrust is added. Question 7. What is a stabilator? A) A fixed horizontal stabilizer with a hinged elevator. B) An all‑moving horizontal tail surface. C) A leading‑edge high‑lift device.
Question 11. During an engine‑out on a twin‑engine aircraft, the rudder is used to: A) Increase lift on the operative wing. B) Counteract asymmetrical thrust (yaw). C) Reduce drag on the inoperative side. D) Trim the aircraft for climb. Answer: B Explanation: With one engine inoperative, the aircraft yaws toward the dead engine; rudder input counters this yaw. Question 12. VMC (minimum control speed) is primarily determined by: A) Maximum takeoff weight. B) The ability of the rudder to counteract engine‑out yaw. C) Flap setting. D) Altitude. Answer: B Explanation: VMC is the lowest speed at which directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative, relying on rudder effectiveness. Question 13. Which device is used to relieve pilot control forces by moving opposite to the primary control surface? A) Trim tab B) Anti‑servo tab C) Spoiler D) Slat Answer: A Explanation: A trim tab deflects opposite to the control surface, producing a moment that reduces the force needed on the primary control. Question 14. Electric trim systems differ from manual trim primarily in that they:
A) Use hydraulic pressure to move the tab. B) Require pilot force on the control column. C) Employ electric motors to position the tab. D) Are only available on turboprop aircraft. Answer: C Explanation: Electric trim uses a motor and switch to move the trim tab without pilot force. Question 15. Lead‑lag tabs are most commonly found on which type of control surface? A) Ailerons B) Flaps C) Stabilators D) Rudders Answer: C Explanation: Lead‑lag tabs are used on all‑moving surfaces like stabilators to provide artificial feel and prevent over‑control. Question 16. Which flap type provides the greatest increase in lift coefficient while also adding significant drag? A) Plain flap B) Split flap C) Slotted flap D) Fowler flap Answer: D Explanation: Fowler flaps extend rearward, increasing wing area and camber, yielding high lift and drag. Question 17. Slotted flaps improve lift by: A) Allowing high‑energy air from below the wing to flow over the flap’s upper surface. B) Increasing wing thickness. C) Reducing the wing’s chord.
Question 21. Which of the following is a mechanical actuation method for primary flight controls? A) Fly‑by‑wire computers B) Hydraulic actuators C) Push‑pull tubes D) Electro‑hydraulic servos Answer: C Explanation: Push‑pull tubes transmit pilot input directly to control surfaces mechanically. Question 22. In a hydro‑mechanical system, the term “reservoir” refers to: A) The cockpit instrument panel. B) The storage tank for hydraulic fluid. C) The backup battery pack. D) The flight control computer. Answer: B Explanation: The reservoir holds hydraulic fluid that powers actuators. Question 23. Fly‑by‑wire (FBW) systems replace which traditional component? A) Control cables B) Ailerons C) Propellers D) Pitot tubes Answer: A Explanation: FBW uses electronic signals instead of mechanical linkages like cables. Question 24. In FBW, “Normal law” provides: A) Full envelope protection and automatic trim. B) Direct, unaugmented control. C) Only pitch augmentation. D) No protection; pilot has full authority.
Answer: A Explanation: Normal law includes protections against excessive bank, pitch, and stall. Question 25. “Alternate law” in FBW differs from Normal law by: A) Removing all protections. B) Providing limited envelope protection. C) Adding more aggressive pitch rates. D) Using hydraulic backup only. Answer: B Explanation: Alternate law retains some protections (e.g., stall) but relaxes others. Question 26. Artificial feel units (Q‑feel) in hydraulic systems are used to: A) Increase hydraulic pressure. B) Simulate aerodynamic forces on the controls. C) Reduce the weight of the aircraft. D) Provide electrical power to the actuators. Answer: B Explanation: Q‑feel devices generate resistance proportional to dynamic pressure, giving pilots realistic feedback. Question 27. At low airspeed, control feel tends to be: A) Very firm due to high aerodynamic forces. B) Soft and mushy because aerodynamic forces are low. C) Unchanged from high‑speed feel. D) Non‑existent. Answer: B Explanation: With less airflow, aerodynamic forces on control surfaces are reduced, making the controls feel lighter.
C) Engine failure. D) Excessive flaps. Answer: B Explanation: Buffet is caused by airflow separation near the wing’s trailing edge at high AoA or high speed, signaling an impending stall. Question 32. Aeroelastic flutter is most dangerous because it can: A) Reduce fuel efficiency. B) Cause rapid structural failure. C) Increase climb rate. D) Improve handling. Answer: B Explanation: Flutter is a self‑excited vibration that can quickly destroy control surfaces or wings. Question 33. A split‑elevator malfunction (one side deflected) is best corrected by: A) Using opposite aileron input. B) Applying opposite rudder. C) Adjusting power and trim while maintaining level attitude. D) Deploying flaps. Answer: C Explanation: Power changes and trim can compensate for asymmetric elevator deflection; aileron or rudder are ineffective for pitch control. Question 34. Runaway trim is identified by: A) Rapid, uncommanded movement of the trim wheel. B) Sudden loss of hydraulic pressure. C) Unexpected flap deployment. D) Decrease in engine RPM. Answer: A
Explanation: Runaway trim occurs when the trim system moves without pilot input, often due to electrical or hydraulic fault. Question 35. The primary method to stop a runaway trim condition is: A) Pulling the trim cutout switch. B) Deploying the landing gear. C) Reducing throttle to idle. D) Using the autopilot. Answer: A Explanation: The trim cutout disconnects the trim actuator, preventing further movement. Question 36. When a split‑flap condition (one flap extended) occurs, the correct immediate action is: A) Retract the extended flap. B) Keep the remaining flap in the same position and continue flight. C) Land as soon as possible and avoid retracting the remaining flap. D) Increase airspeed to compensate. Answer: C Explanation: Asymmetrical flap deployment causes roll; the aircraft should be landed promptly, and the remaining flap should not be moved until after landing. Question 37. In the event of a total hydraulic failure on a conventional aircraft, the pilot should: A) Rely on electric backup pumps only. B) Use manual reversion (cable or push‑pull) if provided. C] Deploy all flaps to increase lift. D) Immediately disengage the autopilot. Answer: B Explanation: Many aircraft are designed with manual reversion to allow limited control without hydraulic pressure.
C) Increased control force feedback proportional to speed. D) Ability to move control surfaces without pilot input. Answer: C Explanation: Hydraulic boost provides feel that varies with dynamic pressure, giving realistic feedback. Question 42. In a fly‑by‑wire aircraft, the term “law” refers to: A) The legal regulations governing flight. B) The software algorithm that defines control behavior. C) The hydraulic pressure setting. D) The maximum allowable bank angle. Answer: B Explanation: “Law” is the set of control laws (Normal, Alternate, Direct) programmed into the flight control computers. Question 43. Which high‑lift device is most effective at increasing wing area? A) Plain flap B) Split flap C) Fowler flap D) Slotted flap Answer: C Explanation: Fowler flaps slide rearward, extending the wing’s chord and increasing area. Question 44. When a pilot applies full nose‑up elevator at high speed, the aircraft may experience: A) A deep stall. B) A pitch‑up oscillation known as “pilot‑induced oscillation.” C) A rapid loss of altitude. D) No change due to control reversal. Answer: B Explanation: At high speed, control forces are high; excessive input can cause PIO if not damped.
Question 45. The primary purpose of a rudder‑assist system (yaw damper) is to: A) Reduce fuel consumption. B) Dampen Dutch roll motions. C) Increase climb rate. D) Provide backup rudder control. Answer: B Explanation: Yaw dampers automatically apply small rudder inputs to suppress Dutch roll. Question 46. Which of the following statements about a split‑aerodynamic (split) flap is correct? A) It increases lift without adding drag. B) It acts as a spoiler, increasing drag while providing some lift. C) It is only used on military aircraft. D) It is identical to a slotted flap. Answer: B Explanation: Split flaps deflect only the lower surface, creating drag and modest lift. Question 47. In a hydraulic system, the term “accumulator” is used to: A) Store hydraulic fluid under pressure for quick response. B) Measure control surface deflection. C) Convert hydraulic power to electrical power. D) Filter contaminants. Answer: A Explanation: Accumulators store pressurized fluid, providing energy for rapid actuator movement. Question 48. Which control surface is most directly responsible for yaw damping during a roll? A) Aileron B) Elevator C) Rudder
Question 52. Which of the following best describes “Vₛ₁” (stall speed in a landing configuration)? A) Stall speed with flaps retracted. B) Stall speed with full landing flaps and gear down. C) Stall speed at maximum weight only. D) Stall speed at cruise altitude. Answer: B Explanation: Vₛ₁ is the stall speed when the aircraft is in the landing configuration (full flaps, gear down). Question 53. During a flight, a pilot notices a “flutter” in the aileron at high speed. The immediate corrective action is to: A) Increase throttle. B) Reduce airspeed below the flutter envelope. C) Deploy flaps. D) Turn on the autopilot. Answer: B Explanation: Flutter is speed‑dependent; reducing speed removes the excitation. Question 54. The term “rigging” of flight controls refers to: A) Painting the control surfaces. B) Setting the correct geometric relationships and tensions. C) Installing the avionics suite. D) Testing the engine performance. Answer: B Explanation: Rigging ensures that control surfaces move the correct amount for a given input. Question 55. In a twin‑engine aircraft, the “critical engine” is the one whose failure: A) Produces the greatest yaw moment. B) Is farthest from the cockpit. C) Is the left‑hand engine only.
D) Has the lowest fuel flow. Answer: A Explanation: The critical engine is the one whose loss creates the worst asymmetric thrust and yaw. Question 56. Which of the following is a typical symptom of a hydraulic pump failure? A) No change in control feel. B) Loss of power‑assist on primary controls. C) Increased fuel flow. D) Immediate engine shutdown. Answer: B Explanation: A failed pump removes hydraulic pressure, eliminating power‑assist. Question 57. A “flight control computer” in an FBW system primarily performs which function? A) Generates electrical power for the aircraft. B) Processes pilot inputs and commands actuators. C) Controls the fuel mixture. D) Monitors tire pressure. Answer: B Explanation: The computer translates pilot stick/pedal inputs into actuator commands. Question 58. The “center of pressure” (CP) moves aft when: A) Flaps are retracted. B) The aircraft accelerates. C) The wing’s lift coefficient decreases. D) The aircraft is trimmed nose‑up. Answer: B Explanation: At higher speeds, the CP tends to shift aft due to changes in pressure distribution. Question 59. Which of the following is a direct result of increasing the wing’s camber with flaps?
D) Incorrect trim setting. Answer: B Explanation: At low dynamic pressure, wing twist can cause aileron input to produce opposite roll, known as control reversal. Question 63. The purpose of a “speed brake” or “spoiler” is to: A) Increase lift. B) Reduce lift and increase drag for descent. C) Provide additional yaw control. D) Act as a primary flight control. Answer: B Explanation: Spoilers disrupt airflow, decreasing lift and increasing drag, aiding descent and speed control. Question 64. In a dual‑hydraulic system, the term “cross‑feed” refers to: A) Using one system to power the other in case of failure. B) Feeding fuel to both engines simultaneously. C) Connecting the autopilot to both hydraulic pumps. D) Sharing electrical power between systems. Answer: A Explanation: Cross‑feed allows one hydraulic system to drive components normally powered by the other, providing redundancy. Question 65. A “flight control surface hinge moment” is best described as: A) The torque required to rotate the surface about its hinge. B) The aerodynamic lift produced by the surface. C) The hydraulic pressure in the actuator. D) The electrical signal sent to the computer. Answer: A
Explanation: Hinge moment is the aerodynamic torque that the pilot must overcome to move the surface. Question 66. Which of the following devices provides a “positive” control feel in a hydraulic system? A) Spring‑loaded control column. B) Q‑feel unit. C) Electric motor. D) Mechanical cable. Answer: B Explanation: Q‑feel devices generate resistance proportional to dynamic pressure, giving a positive feel. Question 67. The “Vₘᶜₐ” (maximum calibrated airspeed) is important for flight controls because: A) Exceeding it can cause structural damage to control surfaces. B) It determines fuel consumption. C) It is the speed at which the aircraft stalls. D) It is the recommended cruise speed. Answer: A Explanation: Vₘᶜₐ is the maximum speed at which the aircraft’s structure, including control surfaces, is certified. Question 68. Which of the following best describes “elastic deformation” of a control surface? A) Permanent bending that must be repaired. B) Temporary shape change under aerodynamic load that returns when load is removed. C) A change in the surface’s material composition. D) A failure of the hinge mechanism. Answer: B Explanation: Elastic deformation is temporary and reversible, occurring under load. Question 69. In a “direct law” FBW mode, the pilot’s input is:
