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Question 1. Which federal law specifically protects migratory birds, including raptors, from being taken without a permit? A) Endangered Species Act B) Migratory Bird Treaty Act C) Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act D) Wildlife Conservation Act Answer: B Explanation: The Migratory Bird Treaty Act (MBTA) makes it illegal to take, possess, transport, or sell migratory birds without a valid permit, and it applies to all raptor species covered by the treaty. Question 2. An apprentice falconer in the United States must be at least what age to obtain an Apprentice permit? A) 12 years B) 14 years C) 16 years D) 18 years Answer: B Explanation: Federal regulations require an apprentice to be a minimum of 14 years old; the applicant must also have a sponsor who holds a General or Master permit. Question 3. Which of the following species is most commonly allowed for an apprentice falconer to possess in the United States? A) Peregrine Falcon B) Red-tailed Hawk C) Golden Eagle D) Gyrfalcon Answer: B Explanation: Red‑tailed Hawks are widely available to apprentices because they are abundant, hardy, and listed as a legal species for apprentice-level permits.
Question 4. Under the Apprentice permit, how many raptors may an apprentice legally possess at one time? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: C Explanation: Apprentices are limited to a maximum of three raptors at any given time, which helps ensure proper care and management. Question 5. The term “eyas” in falconry refers to: A) A juvenile hawk that has left the nest but is not yet independent B) A nestling taken before it can fly C) A first‑year bird captured after fledging D) An adult bird used for training Answer: B Explanation: “Eyas” are young birds taken directly from the nest, typically before they have learned to fly; apprentices are generally prohibited from taking eyas. Question 6. Which part of a raptor’s digestive system stores food temporarily before it reaches the stomach? A) Proventriculus B) Crop C) Gizzard D) Cloaca Answer: B Explanation: The crop is an expandable pouch in the esophagus that temporarily stores food, allowing the bird to feed quickly and digest later. Question 7. The primary function of the preen gland in raptors is to:
C) Coverts D) Tail feathers Answer: A Explanation: The primaries are the main flight feathers attached to the hand bones and are essential for producing thrust and maneuverability. Question 11. A raptor that primarily feeds on small mammals such as voles and rabbits is classified as a: A) Piscivore B) Insectivore C) Mammal‑eater D) Frugivore Answer: C Explanation: Raptors that hunt and consume mammals are termed mammal‑eaters; many Buteos fall into this category. Question 12. The “creance” used in falconry is: A) A type of glove for handling the bird B) A long training line that allows the bird to fly a set distance and return C) A harness for trapping wild raptors D) A perch designed for weight monitoring Answer: B Explanation: A creance is a heavy‑duty line (often 25– 100 m) that enables the apprentice to train the bird to fly away from the glove and return on command. Question 13. Which of the following is a legal requirement for the indoor “mew” of an apprentice falconer? A) Minimum floor area of 5 sq ft per bird B) Ceiling height of at least 8 ft C) Wire mesh walls with openings no larger than ¼ inch D) Concrete flooring only
Answer: C Explanation: Regulations specify that mew walls must be constructed of wire mesh with openings no larger than ¼ inch to prevent escape and protect the bird. Question 14. When assessing a raptor’s “flying weight,” which body part is most indicative of adequate muscle condition? A) Beak length B) Keel (sternum) depth C) Tail feather length D) Tarsus circumference Answer: B Explanation: The keel, a ridge on the sternum where flight muscles attach, is palpated to evaluate muscle mass; a well‑filled keel indicates proper flying weight. Question 15. Bumblefoot in raptors is primarily caused by: A) Viral infection of the respiratory tract B) Bacterial infection of the foot pads due to trauma or poor perches C) Nutritional deficiency of calcium D) Parasitic infestation of the gastrointestinal tract Answer: B Explanation: Bumblefoot (pododermatitis) results from bacterial infection, often precipitated by rough perches, injuries, or unsanitary conditions. Question 16. The disease “frounce” in raptors is caused by which organism? A) Aspergillus fumigatus (fungus) B) Trichomonas gallinae (protozoan) C) Salmonella spp. (bacteria) D) Capillaria spp. (nematode) Answer: B
Question 20. The “Bal‑Chatri” trap is primarily used to: A) Capture waterfowl B) Capture small mammals C) Capture birds of prey attracted to live lure animals D) Capture snakes Answer: C Explanation: The Bal‑Chatri is a wire cage with a live lure (often a chicken) used to attract and capture raptors that attempt to seize the lure. Question 21. Which of the following best describes the “entering” process in falconry? A) Introducing the bird to a new type of prey in captivity B) Allowing the bird to fly freely over a field without a glove C) Presenting a live quarry to the bird for the first time in the field D) Training the bird to return on a creance after a long flight Answer: C Explanation: “Entering” is the stage where the apprentice introduces a live, natural quarry to the bird for the first time, teaching it to capture in the wild. Question 22. Under the Endangered Species Act, a falconer may possess a listed species only if: A) The bird was taken before the species was listed B) The falconer has a special “endangered species” permit C) The species is classified as “threatened” not “endangered” D) The bird is kept for breeding purposes only Answer: B Explanation: The Endangered Species Act requires a specific permit to possess a listed species; apprentices cannot obtain such permits, limiting them to non‑listed species. Question 23. Which of the following statements about molt in raptors is correct? A) Molt occurs only once in a bird’s lifetime B) Molt is synchronized with the breeding season to ensure full plumage for courtship
C) Raptors undergo a “step‑over” molt, replacing flight feathers one at a time to maintain flight ability D) Molt is triggered by changes in daylight length alone Answer: C Explanation: Raptors replace flight feathers sequentially (step‑over molt) so they can continue to fly effectively throughout the process. Question 24. The most appropriate substrate for a hawk’s outdoor “weathering” area is: A) Bare concrete B) Pea gravel mixed with sand C) Loose wood shavings D) Rubber matting Answer: B Explanation: A mixture of pea gravel and sand provides good drainage, reduces foot trauma, and mimics natural ground conditions. Question 25. In falconry, a “jess” is used to: A) Measure the bird’s weight precisely B) Secure the bird’s legs while on the glove C) Attach the bird’s leash to the glove for short‑range control D) Cover the bird’s eyes during transport Answer: C Explanation: A jess is a leather strap that attaches to the bird’s leg and connects to the glove, allowing the falconer to control the bird at close range. Question 26. Which of the following is a primary reason for conducting an annual 3‑186A form filing? A) To report the number of birds harvested in the wild B) To document the health status of each raptor in the falconry program C) To provide the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service with inventory data for permit renewal and compliance verification D) To request additional hunting permits for the upcoming season
Explanation: The keel check involves feeling the sternum’s ridge to gauge the amount of flight muscle; a well‑filled keel indicates good condition. Question 30. Which of the following raptor families includes the species most commonly used for hunting pigeons? A) Accipitridae (hawks) B) Falconidae (falcons) C) Strigidae (owls) D) Pandionidae (ospreys) Answer: B Explanation: Falcons, especially the Peregrine Falcon, are renowned for their speed and are frequently used to hunt medium‑sized birds such as pigeons. Question 31. The primary purpose of a hood in falconry is to: A) Protect the bird’s eyes from bright sunlight B) Keep the bird warm during cold weather C) Reduce visual stimuli to calm the bird and prevent bating D) Provide a secure way to transport the bird in a carrier Answer: C Explanation: Hoods block visual input, helping to keep the bird calm, reduce stress, and prevent the bird from seeing potential prey that could trigger bating. Question 32. Which of the following statements about the “Dho‑Gaza” trap is true? A) It uses a net suspended over a water source to capture waterfowl B) It is a ground‑based net that is triggered by a pressure plate when a raptor lands on it C) It relies on a live lure placed inside a cage to attract raptors D) It is a portable cage used for transporting captured birds Answer: B Explanation: The Dho‑Gaza is a ground‑based net trap that is set up with a trigger mechanism; when a raptor lands on the trigger, the net collapses and captures the bird.
Question 33. Which of the following best describes the “step‑over” molt pattern? A) All primary feathers are replaced simultaneously B) Feathers are replaced in a symmetrical sequence from the innermost to the outermost primary C) Flight feathers are replaced one at a time, alternating sides, to preserve flight capability D) Molt occurs only after the breeding season is complete Answer: C Explanation: The step‑over molt allows the bird to maintain flight by replacing one primary at a time, alternating sides. Question 34. Which of the following is NOT a recommended method to prevent bumblefoot in captive raptors? A) Providing perches with textured surfaces B) Regularly cleaning and disinfecting the mew floor C) Using sand or pea gravel as substrate D) Allowing the bird to stand on smooth, hard surfaces for extended periods Answer: D Explanation: Smooth, hard surfaces increase pressure on the foot pads and can lead to bumblefoot; textured perches and proper substrate help prevent it. Question 35. In the context of falconry, “imping” refers to: A) Attaching a prosthetic feather to replace a broken primary B) Trimming the bird’s talons for safety C) Fitting a custom‑made hood to the bird’s head D) Adjusting the length of the creance for training Answer: A Explanation: Imping is the process of repairing a broken feather by inserting a lightweight splint (often a piece of feather or synthetic material) to restore aerodynamic function.
A) Bumblefoot B) Aspergillosis C) Coccidiosis D) Trichomoniasis Answer: B Explanation: Aspergillosis is a fungal infection that thrives in damp, poorly ventilated environments, making moldy bedding a significant risk factor. Question 40. The “hunting season” for raptors in most U.S. states is primarily regulated to: A) Limit the number of birds that can be taken for sport B) Align with the breeding season of the prey species C) Ensure that raptors are not taken during migration periods D) Coordinate with the federal Migratory Bird Treaty Act renewal schedule Answer: C Explanation: State hunting seasons are set to avoid taking raptors during migration when they are most vulnerable and to protect breeding populations. Question 41. Which of the following is the most accurate method for weighing a raptor to monitor health? A) Using a kitchen scale that measures in ounces B) Using a digital gram scale with a capacity of at least 5 kg and 0.1 g precision C) Estimating weight by comparing the bird’s size to a reference chart D) Weighing the bird while it is perched on a wooden block Answer: B Explanation: A precise digital gram scale is essential for monitoring subtle weight changes that indicate health status. Question 42. The “straight‑to‑the‑fist” training method involves: A) Throwing a live prey item directly into the falconer’s fist for the bird to seize B) Using a pole to guide the bird from the glove to the fist without a creance
C) Training the bird to fly from the perch directly into the falconer’s fist after a short release D) Feeding the bird a piece of meat held in the falconer’s fist to build trust Answer: C Explanation: Straight‑to‑the‑fist training teaches the bird to fly a short distance and land directly into the falconer’s fist, reinforcing recall. Question 43. Which of the following best defines “passage” in falconry terminology? A) A bird taken from a nest before fledging B) A first‑year bird that has already left the nest and learned to fly C) An adult bird that has completed at least one breeding cycle D) A bird that has been released and recaptured during the same season Answer: B Explanation: “Passage” refers to a juvenile raptor that is in its first year after fledging, a stage at which apprentices may possess a limited number. Question 44. When a raptor is “bating,” the bird is: A) Engaging in a territorial call B) Holding onto a prey item with its talons, refusing to release it C) Attempting to escape from the glove by flapping vigorously D) Displaying a courtship dance Answer: B Explanation: Bating occurs when a bird grips a prey item too tightly and cannot release it, often leading to injury if not managed promptly. Question 45. Which of the following is a common sign of dehydration in a captive raptor? A) Sunken eyes and tacky skin around the beak B) Excessive preening of feathers C) Increased vocalizations at night D) Rapid weight gain over a short period Answer: A
Question 49. Which of the following prey species is most appropriate for training a juvenile Red‑tailed Hawk in the early stages? A) Live rabbit B) Small songbird (e.g., sparrow) C) Rat or mouse (alive) D) Chickens (young) Answer: C Explanation: Small rodents such as rats or mice are ideal for early training because they are manageable in size and provide appropriate prey handling experience. Question 50. The “preen gland” is located at: A) The base of the tail B) The top of the head, near the beak C) The lower back, near the vent D) The underside of the wing Answer: C Explanation: The preen gland sits near the vent on the bird’s lower back and secretes oil used during preening. Question 51. Which of the following is a common cause of “coccidiosis” in captive raptors? A) Ingestion of contaminated water or prey carrying oocysts B) Exposure to cold temperatures for extended periods C) Over‑use of antibiotics in the diet D) Excessive handling stress Answer: A Explanation: Coccidiosis is caused by protozoan parasites (coccidia) that are transmitted through contaminated food, water, or prey. Question 52. The “block perch” is most suitable for which type of raptor? A) Buteos (hawks)
B) Falcons (e.g., Peregrine) C) Owls D) Vultures Answer: B Explanation: Block perches provide a flat, sturdy surface that mimics the natural perching style of falcons, reducing strain on their toes. Question 53. Which of the following best describes the “hunting bag limit” for raptors in most U.S. states? A) Unlimited, as long as the hunter holds a valid permit B) A maximum number of raptors that may be taken per season, often zero for protected species C) A limit based on the number of days the hunter spends in the field D) A limit determined by the size of the bird’s creance Answer: B Explanation: Many states set a bag limit of zero for protected raptor species; some allow limited take of non‑protected species under strict regulations. Question 54. The “gizzard” in a raptor’s digestive tract is primarily composed of: A) Cartilage and bone fragments B) Muscular tissue and keratinized lining C) Fatty deposits for energy storage D) Glandular secretions for digestion Answer: B Explanation: The gizzard is a thick muscular organ with a keratinized lining that grinds hard food items. Question 55. Which of the following statements about “wing loading” is correct? A) It refers to the ratio of wing length to body weight and affects maneuverability B) It is unrelated to a raptor’s ability to soar C) High wing loading indicates a bird that is better suited for rapid acceleration and diving D) Low wing loading means the bird cannot sustain long flights
Explanation: Healthy flight feathers have smooth, intact edges; wear, breakage, or discoloration may indicate health or nutritional issues. Question 59. In falconry, “imping” a feather is typically performed using: A) A metal rod inserted into the feather shaft B) A small wooden dowel or feather splint secured with adhesive C) A synthetic polymer that is melted onto the shaft D) A brass screw that threads into the feather Answer: B Explanation: Imping uses a lightweight splint (often a small wooden dowel or another feather) glued into the broken feather’s shaft to restore structure. Question 60. Which of the following best describes the “horn” of a hawk’s foot? A) The keratinized tip of the talon used for gripping prey B) The curved part of the toe that assists in perching C) The pad on the underside of the foot that provides cushioning D) The joint between the tarsus and the toe Answer: A Explanation: The “horn” is the sharp, keratinized tip of the talon that enables a raptor to grasp and kill prey. Question 61. When a falconer reports a lost bird to the USFWS, which form is typically used? A) 3‑186A B) 7‑12B C) 5‑C D) 9‑22R Answer: B Explanation: Form 7‑12B is the “Lost or Stolen Falconry Bird” report required when a permitted bird cannot be located.
Question 62. Which of the following is the most common method for preventing “wing strain” during early flight training? A) Using a weighted vest on the bird B) Allowing the bird to fly in strong winds immediately C) Conducting short, controlled flights in calm weather and gradually increasing distance D) Tethering the bird to a heavy anchor while it flaps Answer: C Explanation: Gradual exposure to flight in calm conditions reduces the risk of wing over‑exertion and strain. Question 63. The “captive breeding” exception under the Endangered Species Act allows: A) Any individual to keep a listed species as a pet B) Licensed facilities to breed endangered raptors for re‑introduction programs, not for personal falconry C) Apprentices to own a single endangered bird without a permit D) Commercial trade of endangered species under a special license Answer: B Explanation: Captive breeding permits are issued for conservation and re‑introduction, not for personal falconry use. Question 64. Which of the following is a primary visual cue used to distinguish a juvenile Red‑tailed Hawk from an adult? A) Presence of a dark tail band in juveniles B) Fully developed rufous tail in adults C) White underwing coverts in juveniles only D) Bright yellow eyes in adults only Answer: A Explanation: Juvenile Red‑tailed Hawks typically have a dark tail band, whereas adults display a characteristic rufous tail without a band. Question 65. The “flight envelope” of a raptor refers to:
