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Exam
Question 1. Which of the following file systems is native to macOS and supports snapshots? A) NTFS B) ext C) APFS D) FAT Answer: C Explanation: APFS (Apple File System) is the default for macOS and includes features such as snapshots and space sharing. Question 2. In Windows, which utility provides a real-time view of CPU, memory, disk, and network usage? A) Disk Management B) Event Viewer C) Task Manager D) Device Manager Answer: C Explanation: Task Manager displays live performance metrics for CPU, memory, disk, and network. Question 3. Which boot method uses a network interface to load an operating system image? A) USB boot B) PXE boot C) Optical boot D) RAID boot Answer: B Explanation: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows a computer to boot from a server over the network.
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Question 4. A “Blue Screen of Death” in Windows is most commonly caused by which type of error? A) User permission issue B) Kernel-mode driver failure C) Incorrect BIOS settings D) File system fragmentation Answer: B Explanation: BSODs usually result from critical kernel-mode failures, often due to faulty drivers or hardware. Question 5. Which hypervisor type runs directly on the host hardware without a primary operating system? A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Hosted D) VirtualBox Answer: A Explanation: Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisors run directly on hardware, providing better performance and isolation. Question 6. DDR5 RAM operates at a higher data rate than DDR4. What is the minimum voltage difference between DDR4 (1.2 V) and DDR5? A) 0.05 V B) 0.1 V C) 0.2 V D) 0.3 V Answer: B Explanation: DDR5 typically runs at 1.1 V, a 0.1 V reduction from DDR4’s 1.2 V, improving power efficiency. Question 7. Which RAID level provides both striping for performance and mirroring for redundancy?
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C) Successful POST D) Keyboard error Answer: C Explanation: On most BIOS implementations, a single short beep means POST completed successfully. Question 11. Which OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end logical addressing? A) Data Link B) Network C) Transport D) Session Answer: B Explanation: The Network layer (Layer 3) handles IP addressing and routing between devices. Question 12. An IPv4 address of 192.168.10.0/24 belongs to which class? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Explanation: Class C addresses range from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255; the / subnet mask denotes a Class C network. Question 13. Which protocol translates human-readable domain names to IP addresses? A) DHCP B) DNS C) FTP D) SNMP Answer: B
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Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. Question 14. Which Ethernet cable category supports 10 Gbps up to 55 meters? A) Cat5e B) Cat C) Cat6a D) Cat Answer: B Explanation: Cat6 can handle 10 Gbps for distances up to 55 m, while Cat6a extends that to 100 m. Question 15. In Wi-Fi, which standard introduced the 5 GHz band and MU-MIMO? A) 802.11a B) 802.11n C) 802.11ac D) 802.11ax Answer: C Explanation: 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) added the 5 GHz band, wider channels, and multi-user MIMO. Question 16. Which type of malware encrypts files and demands payment for decryption? A) Trojan B) Worm C) Ransomware D) Spyware Answer: C Explanation: Ransomware locks or encrypts data, then asks victims for a ransom to restore access.
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A) HKEY_CURRENT_USER
B) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run C) HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D) HKEY_USERS Answer: B Explanation: The Run key under HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE stores startup entries that can be affected by updates, leading to crashes. Question 21. Which Linux file system is most commonly used for enterprise servers due to its journaling and scalability? A) ext B) ext C) ext D) XFS Answer: D Explanation: XFS offers high scalability, robust journaling, and is favored for large-scale server deployments. Question 22. When configuring a virtual machine, which setting determines the isolation level between host and guest? A) CPU cores B) RAM size C) Virtual network adapter type D) Hypervisor type (Type 1 vs. Type 2) Answer: D Explanation: Type 1 hypervisors provide stronger isolation than Type 2, which runs atop a host OS. Question 23. Which command in Windows displays the IP configuration of all adapters? A) ipconfig /all B) netstat -r
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C) ping -t D) tracert Answer: A Explanation: “ipconfig /all” shows detailed IP settings for every network interface. Question 24. A device is unable to obtain an IP address automatically. Which DHCP message is missing? A) DHCPDISCOVER B) DHCPOFFER C) DHCPREQUEST D) DHCPACK Answer: A Explanation: The client must first broadcast a DHCPDISCOVER; without it, no address can be assigned. Question 25. Which of the following best describes the function of a UPS? A) Convert AC to DC for the motherboard B) Provide backup power and voltage regulation C) Increase network bandwidth D) Store data permanently Answer: B Explanation: An Uninterruptible Power Supply supplies temporary power and regulates voltage during outages. Question 26. In Windows, which tool would you use to view system event logs for troubleshooting driver failures? A) Resource Monitor B) Event Viewer C) Performance Monitor D) Services.msc Answer: B
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Question 30. What does the acronym “POST” stand for in the boot process? A) Power-On Self-Test B) Peripheral Operating System Transfer C) Programmed Output Sequence Test D) Primary Operating System Trigger Answer: A Explanation: POST checks hardware integrity before handing control to the bootloader. Question 31. Which file system format is required for a Windows bootable USB drive larger than 32 GB? A) FAT B) FAT C) NTFS D) exFAT Answer: C Explanation: NTFS supports files larger than 4 GB and is required for Windows installers exceeding 32 GB. Question 32. Which of the following best describes a “Zero-day” exploit? A) An attack using a known vulnerability with a patch available B) A vulnerability discovered and patched on the same day C) An unknown vulnerability with no available fix D) A phishing email sent on the first day of the month Answer: C Explanation: Zero-day exploits target vulnerabilities that are undisclosed and unpatched. Question 33. In the context of help-desk tickets, what does “SLAs” stand for? A) Service Level Agreements B) System Log Archives
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C) Secure Login Access D) Standard License Allocation Answer: A Explanation: SLAs define the expected response and resolution times for support requests. Question 34. Which step of the 6-step troubleshooting methodology involves confirming that the problem no longer exists after a fix? A) Identify the problem B) Test the theory C) Verify system functionality D) Document findings Answer: C Explanation: Verification ensures the solution works and the issue is fully resolved. Question 35. Which wireless frequency band is least susceptible to interference from microwave ovens? A) 2.4 GHz B) 5 GHz C) 900 MHz D) 60 GHz Answer: B Explanation: 5 GHz experiences less interference from common household devices like microwave ovens. Question 36. Which of the following is a physical security measure for laptops? A) BIOS password B) Kensington lock C) BitLocker encryption D) Two-factor authentication Answer: B
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Question 40. Which of the following is a common symptom of a failing power supply unit (PSU)? A) Random BIOS beep codes B) Sudden shutdowns under load C) Increased network latency D) Blue screen with driver error code 0x0000007B Answer: B Explanation: A weak PSU cannot sustain power demand, causing abrupt shutdowns when components draw more current. Question 41. Which Windows feature allows you to run multiple isolated user environments on a single machine? A) Hyper-V B) Remote Desktop C) Windows Sandbox D) User Account Control Answer: C Explanation: Windows Sandbox creates a temporary, isolated desktop environment for testing. Question 42. Which Linux command changes file permissions to read-only for the owner, and no access for others? A) chmod 700 file.txt B) chmod 600 file.txt C) chmod 400 file.txt D) chmod 000 file.txt Answer: C Explanation: “chmod 400” grants read permission only to the owner; group and others receive none. Question 43. In TCP/IP, which flag indicates that a packet is the final segment of a data stream?
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A) SYN
B) FIN
C) ACK
D) RST
Answer: B Explanation: The FIN flag signals the termination of a TCP connection, marking the last segment. Question 44. Which of the following best describes “Active Listening” in a help-desk context? A) Repeating the customer’s exact words verbatim B) Waiting silently until the customer finishes, then summarizing their issue C) Providing an immediate solution without clarification D) Using technical jargon to demonstrate expertise Answer: B Explanation: Active listening involves allowing the speaker to finish, then paraphrasing to confirm understanding. Question 45. Which command in Windows clears the DNS resolver cache? A) ipconfig /flushdns B) netsh int ip reset C) nslookup -clear D) ping -t 127.0.0. Answer: A Explanation: “ipconfig /flushdns” removes all entries from the DNS cache. Question 46. Which of the following is an advantage of using a thin client in a VDI environment? A) High local processing power B) Reduced network bandwidth usage C) Independence from server resources
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Explanation: “sfc /scannow” scans and replaces corrupted system files with known good copies. Question 50. Which of the following is a social-engineering technique that tricks users into revealing credentials? A) Port scanning B) Phishing C) Packet sniffing D) DDoS attack Answer: B Explanation: Phishing uses deceptive emails or messages to lure users into disclosing sensitive information. Question 51. Which of the following storage configurations provides fault tolerance with a single disk failure? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) RAID 5 D) RAID 6 Answer: B Explanation: RAID 1 mirrors data across two disks; if one fails, the other continues operation. Question 52. In a Windows environment, which Group Policy setting disables the ability to install unsigned drivers? A) Enable driver signing enforcement B) Turn off Windows Update C) Disable automatic restart D) Allow kernel-mode code signing Answer: A Explanation: Enforcing driver signing prevents installation of unsigned, potentially unsafe drivers.
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Question 53. Which of the following protocols is used for secure file transfer over SSH? A) FTP B) SFTP C) TFTP D) HTTP Answer: B Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) encrypts both commands and data, unlike plain FTP. Question 54. Which of the following is a correct statement about IPv6 address scope? A) Link-local addresses start with FE80::/ B) Global unicast addresses start with FF00::/ C) Multicast addresses start with 2000::/ D) Unique local addresses start with 2001::/ Answer: A Explanation: IPv6 link-local addresses are defined in the FE80::/10 range. Question 55. What is the primary purpose of a DNS “CNAME” record? A) Map a domain to an IP address B) Create an alias for another domain name C) Define mail exchange servers D) Provide reverse lookup of IPs Answer: B Explanation: A CNAME (Canonical Name) record points one domain name to another, creating an alias. Question 56. Which of the following is a best practice when lifting heavy computer equipment?
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C) Requires BIOS access to replace D) Only works with desktop PCs Answer: B Explanation: Hot-swap PSUs allow replacement without shutting down the system. Question 60. In the context of data backup, what does a “differential” backup contain? A) Only files changed since the last full backup B) All files regardless of change status C) Files changed since the last incremental backup D) Only system files Answer: A Explanation: Differential backups capture all changes made since the most recent full backup. Question 61. Which of the following is the correct order of the 6-step troubleshooting process? A) Identify, Establish, Test, Verify, Document, Plan B) Identify, Establish, Test, Plan, Verify, Document C) Identify, Test, Establish, Plan, Verify, Document D) Identify, Establish, Verify, Test, Plan, Document Answer: B Explanation: The standard sequence is Identify → Establish a theory → Test the theory → Establish a plan of action → Verify functionality → Document findings. **Question 62. Which of the following is an example of a “hardware-based” firewall? ** A) Windows Defender Firewall B) Cisco ASA appliance C) pfSense running on a PC D) iptables on Linux
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Answer: B Explanation: Cisco ASA is a dedicated appliance that provides firewall functions at the hardware level. Question 63. In Windows, which file extension indicates a dynamic-link library? A) .exe B) .sys C) .dll D) .bat Answer: C Explanation: DLL files (.dll) contain reusable code that can be loaded by multiple programs. Question 64. Which of the following is the most secure method for wiping a hard drive? A) Quick format B) Deleting files from Explorer C) Writing multiple passes of random data (DoD 5220.22-M) D) Using Disk Cleanup Answer: C Explanation: Multiple overwrites (e.g., DoD standard) ensure data cannot be recovered. Question 65. Which protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network? A) DNS B) DHCP C) ARP D) ICMP Answer: B
