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Firefighter 2 Final Exam Prep
Divisions of labor... A. Outlines how things are to be done and usually how far a person can go without requesting further guidance B. Relates to the number of people one person can supervise effectively C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task D. Is the idea that each firefighter answers to only one supervisor - C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task The incident management system defines span of control as: A. organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into smaller tasks B. having the ability to start small and expand if an incident becomes more complex C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor D. each person having only one supervisor - C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor Firefighters perform duties and responsibilities in accordance with the ________ who establishes the minimum standards for firefighters. A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B. Federal Emergency Management Association (FEMA) C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) - C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) ________ is the standard that contains minimum requirements and procedures for a safety and health program. A. 1901 B. 1932 C. 1001 D. 1500 - D. 1500 What does an initial radio report provide? A. Transfer of command B. Description of conditions as they appear C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm D. Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint - B. Description of conditions as they appear Which of the following should be an arrival report? A. Number of victims B. Discussion of command C. Correct address of the incident
D. Emergency medical services on scene - C. Correct address of the incident Which of the following provides the telecommunications center with a continuous record of actions at scene? A. Arrival report B. Progress report C. Initial radio report D. Personal accountability report - B. Progress report What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during a progress report? A. Requesting multiple or special alarms B. Providing periodic time transmissions C. Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene D. Giving command in the absence of command staff - B. Providing periodic time transmissions ________ must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear statement that alerts all listeners. A. Arrival reports B. Emergency radio traffic C. Tactical progress reports D. Additional resource requests - B. Emergency radio traffic Which of the following would be a reason to request a personnel accountability report (PAR)? A. The primary search is started B. A secondary search is completed C. An emergency evacuation is ordered D. The public information officer requests it - C. An emergency evacuation is ordered Which of following BEST explains why information is gathered for a post incident report? A. reviewing tactical operations errors B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys D. Providing information to media before the official report - B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122) A. Informs other responding units of current conditions B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene - C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123)
Vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the: (192) A. lowest point in a building. B. highest point in a building. C. point in a building that has the most windows. D. point in a building that has the least windows. - B. Highest point in a building The critical temperature for steel trusses is: (193) A. 300°F (149°C). B. 500°F (260°C). C. 900°F (482°C). D. 1,000°F (538°C). - D. 1,000 °F (538°C) Which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior support is needed? (193) A. Lantern B. Mansard C. Sawtooth D. Bowstring truss - D. Bowstring truss Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194) A. Fire detection systems may be damaged. B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread. C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place. D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part of the building while work goes on in the other. - C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place Renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all: (195) A. renovations hazards. B. structural collapse factors. C. building construction hazards. D. impossible to estimate the impact of on a structure. - B. Structural collapse factors Which of the following BEST describes when structural collapse may occur? (197) A. It can occur when all the factors are met. B. It can only occur before fire suppression. C. It can only occur during fire suppression. D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished. - D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished In what fire stage is structural collapse very likely? (197) A. Incipient B. Growth C. Fully developed
D. Decay - D. Decay How much is added to the weight of floors for every U.S. gallon (SI liter) used during suppression? (198) A. 5.22 pounds (2.37 kilograms) B. 6.25 pounds (2.83 kilograms) C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kilograms) D. 10.22 pounds (4.63 kilograms) - C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kg) When a collapse is imminent, personnel ___ in the collapse zone. (199) A. should never work B. are allowed to work C. may stay for twenty minutes D. may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream - D. May cautiously place an unstaffed master stream Which of the following BEST describes where the collapse zone is established? (199) A. Adjacent to any exposed interior walls B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls C. Near any area that is 10 feet (3.04 m) from exterior walls D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls - B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls For which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern? (199) A. Type I B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V - A. Type I When exposed to temperatures above ___ unprotected steel will expand and twist. (199) A. 300°F (149°C) B. 500°F (260°C) C. 900°F (482°C) D. 1,000°F (538°C) - D. 1,000°F (538°C) A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when: (200) A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse. B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting. C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time. D. it has been determined that glass shards will be directed at on-scene personnel. - C. The structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time A collapse zone must be established when: (201) A. a defensive strategy has been adopted.
A(an) ________________ is designed to prevent the spread of fire within a structure or between adjacent structures. A. stop B. partition C. truss D. fire wall - D. Fire wall A connecting plate used in truss construction that can be made of flat steel stock, light gauge metal, or plywood is the definition of a: A. joint. B. gusset plate. C. column. D. joist. - B. Gusset plate A partition wall: A. is a load-bearing wall. B. presents the greatest danger for building collapse. C. simply divides two areas within a structure. D. has the highest fire-resistive rating. - C. simply divides two areas within a structure The usual cause of collapse of a lightweist steel truss is the: A. amount of heat generated by the fire within a structure. B. poor construction methods. C. impact load of firefighters jumping onto roof. D. coolings effects of water. - A. amount of heat generated by the fire within a structure Fire walls are: A. usually veneer walls. B. used only to separate two attached buildings. C. only used to divide a large building into sections. D. usually extended from the foundation up to and through the roof of a building. - D. usually extended from the foundation up to and through the roof of a building Which gas is usually found in smoky conditions? A. Carbon fluoride B. Hydrogen Cyanide C. Choride D. Oxygen - B. Hydrogen Cyanide A Class K system is used for: A. metal rims. B. flammable solids. C. cooking oils. D. electrical boxes. - C. cooking oils
Which of the following BEST describes when to replace a spark plug on an electrical generator? A. When it is damaged B. After three months of use C. During routine maintenance D. After five to eight months of use - A. When it is damaged Which of the following BEST describes the result of running a generator for a long period of time without a load? A. May contaminate fuel B. Can damage electrical system C. Will overheat and damage generator D. Allows equipment to warm-up before use - C. Will overheat and damage generator If a bulb must be replaced while hot, wear _____ to prevent being burned. A.latex gloves B.cotton gloves C.leather gloves D.synthetic gloves - C. Leather gloves Which of the following rescue tool uses includes tools to drag materials away to free victims? A. Lifting B. Pulling C. Cutting D. Stabilizing - B. Pulling Tool capabilities vary depending on: (486) A. age of tool. B. user ability. C. age of tool and power source. D. manufacturer and power source. - D. Manufacturer and power source Which rescue tool power source is typically powered by pumps? (488) A. Electric B. Hydraulic C. Pneumatic D. Electric/pneumatic - B. Hydraulic Which hydraulic/electric tool is excellent for a small rapid-interventions vehicle? (489) A. Shears B. Spreaders C. Extension rams D. Combination spreader/shears - D. Combination spreaders/shears
D. It is rated so that quality is ensured. - B. It is lighter and lasts longer What type of lifting tool is used to create an anchor point above a manhole or opening? (496) A. Tripod B. Low-pressure lifting bag C. High-pressure lifting bag D. Medium-pressure lifting bag - A. Tripod Which of the following tools is made in three basic types and gives rescuers the ability to lift or displace objects? (496) A. Cribbing materials B. Nonhydraulic jacks C. Pneumatic lifting bags D. Buttress tension system - C. Pneumatic lifting bags Which of the following BEST describes what may occur if there are openings in the center of cribbing that supports a lifting bag? (498) A. The bag may shift or rupture. B. The bag will create an anchor point. C. The bag may lose stability and lifting power. D. The bag will pry the object away from the victim. - A. The bag may shift or rupture Which of the following BEST describes an advantage of winch cable made of steel? (500) A. It floats on water. B. It resists ultraviolet light. C. It is durable and long lasting. D. It is not affected by temperature variations. - C. It is durable and long lasting The area on either side of a winch cable where a cable can whip if broken is called the: (500) A. cable zone. B. recoil zone. C. winch zone. D. danger zone. - D. Danger zone What rescue tool can be useful for securing vinyl coverings on roof openings? (502) A. Impact tools B. Come-alongs C. Steel cable winch D. Pneumatic nailers - D. Pneumatic nailers Which of the following BEST describes when power tools should be inspected? (503) A. At the end of each shift B. At the beginning of each shift
C. Just after use while at an incident scene D. Just before use while at an incident scene - B. At the beginning of each shift What is the step of extrication that begins at dispatch and continues throughout the incident? (504) A. Size-up B. Stabilizing the vehicle C. Securing the electrical system D. Securing passenger safety systems - A. Size-up Which of the following methods of controlling hazards BEST describes one way to control traffic hazards at an incident scene? (505) A. Allow traffic in one direction only B. Stop all vehicular traffic within one mile C. Maintain constant situational awareness D. Have a significant law enforcement presence - C. Maintain constant situational awareness Which of the following vehicle extrication hazards can be isolated by deactivating undeployed air bags? (506) A. Fire B. Traffic C. Sharp objects D. Blood borne pathogens - A. Fire Which of the following vehicle extrication hazards can be mitigated by covering sharp edges with used fire hose? (507) A. Fire B. Traffic C. Sharp objects D. Blood borne pathogens - C. Sharp objects Which of the following BEST describes the minimum level of protection that should be on stand-by at vehicle extrication incidents? (508) A. A single firefighter standing by with a charged hoseline B. A single firefighter standing by with a portable extinguisher C. Three firefighters standing by, each with a portable extinguisher D. An entire fire crew standing by with charged hoselines and equipment - B. A single firefighter standing by with a portable extinguisher What type of vehicle is powered by a bank of batteries that must be plugged into a charging station and has a relatively short driving range? (508) A. Electric vehicle B. Hydraulic vehicle C. Conventional vehicle D. Hybrid electric vehicle - A. Electric vehicle
B. Lifting devices C. Stabilizing devices D. Passenger safety devices - B. Lifting devices When using a strut and buttress tension system, firefighters must ensure all parts have a safety margin that is: (516) A. the same as the weight being secured. B. in excess of the weight being secured. C. within 5 pounds (2.26 kg) of the weight being secured. D. within 10 pounds (4.53 kg) of the weight being secured. - B. In excess of the weight being secured What type of extrication method is used to stabilize a vehicle that is upside down or lying on its side? (516) A. Lifting jack system B. Buttress tension system C. Adjustable struts system D. Pneumatic lifting bag system - B. Buttress tension system When cutting power cables in a nonelectric vehicle cut: (517) A. before unlocking power doors. B. before lowering power windows. C. the negative first, then the positive. D. the positive first, then the negative. - C. The negative first, then the positive How long is the electrical system in an electric vehicle considered unsafe after the ignition has been shut down? (518) A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes - A. 10 minutes Which of the following passenger safety systems can deploy at up to 200 mph ( km/h), generating potentially lethal force? (519-520) A. Seat belt pretensioners B. Head protection systems C. Extendable roll over protection systems D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems - D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems Which of the following passenger safety systems can be found either behind the front seat in small sports cars or in the rear window deck of convertibles? (521) A. Seat belt pretensioners B. Head protection systems C. Extendable roll over protection systems
D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems - C. Extendable roll over protection systems Which of the following describes the BEST method to gain access to a victim during vehicle extrication? (522) A. The method more firefighters know. B. The method that is simplest and fastest. C. The method that requires the least amount of responders. D. The method that uses the least amount of equipment on scene. - B. The method that is simplest and fastest Which of the following BEST describes where safety glass is commonly used in vehicle windows? (522) A. Mirrors B. Side windows C. Windshields and side windows D. Windshields and rear windows - D. Windshields and rear windows Using your opposite hand to support the hand holding the center punch prevents: (525) A. glass from breaking without warning. B. glass shards from entering the vehicle. C. glass from falling straight down onto victims. D. the center punch from hitting the victim close to the glass. - D. The center punch from hitting the victim close to the glass. What method of gaining access to victims can be accomplished by cutting hinges, breaking a latch mechanism, or compromising locks? (526) A. Prying a door open B. Removing a window C. Cutting through posts D. Removing the vehicle roof - A. Prying a door open When removing a roof, firefighters cut just below roof level to avoid cutting which of the following? (527) A. Fuel lines B. Live electrical wires C. Side airbag gas cylinders D. Space victims may occupy - C. Side airbag gas cylinders Which of the following statements about cutting posts made from exotic metals is MOST accurate? (528) A. Hand tools can be used but take much longer. B. Posts made from exotic metals cannot be cut. C. Reciprocating saws can be used without damage to blades. D. Hand tools cannot be used to cut posts made from exotic metals. - D. Hand tools cannot be used to cut posts made from exotic metals
C. V-shaped D. Cantilever - A. A-frame What type of technical rescue involves physical hazards such as debris that is sharp, jagged, or unstable as well as exposed wiring and rebar? (538) A. Water rescue B. Vehicle rescue C. Confined-space rescue D. Structural collapse rescue - D. Structural collapse rescue Firefighters without confined-space rescue training are limited to which of the following duties? (539) A. Performing non-entry rescues B. Performing less complex confined-space rescues C. Identifying physical hazards while performing rescue D. Relaying information about atmospheric hazards while performing rescue - A. Performing non-entry rescues During confined-space rescue, all rescuers must have a _____ attached to a harness that is constantly monitored. (540) A. search line B. PASS device C. portable radio D. supplied-air respirator - A. Search line In the OATH method of signaling on a search line, two tugs represents: (540) A. O - ok B. H - help C. A - advance D. T - take-up slack - C. A- Advance What is the first step during water rescue operations size-up? (541) A. Establish scene security B. Decide what rescue tasks may be required C. Assess the types of undercurrents on scene D. Determine if incident requires rescue or recovery - Determine if incident requires rescue or recovery Which of the following BEST describes hazards specific to ice rescue operations? (542) A. Victims unlikely to help with own rescue B. Oxygen deficiency due to inadequate ventilation C. Rescue must happen in rugged, inaccessible terrain D. Hazard created by debris trapped against upstream face - A. Victims unlikely to help with own rescue
During trench rescue operations exit ladders should be placed no more than _____ apart. (543) A. 25 feet (7.62 m) B. 30 feet (9.14 m) C. 50 feet (15.24 m) D. 65 feet (19.81 m) - C. 50 ft (15.24 m) What type of technical rescue requires the use of lock out/tag out devices to secure power switches? (545) A. Water rescue B. Vehicle rescue C. Elevator rescue D. Machinery rescue - D. Machinery rescue What type of device BEST fits the following characteristics: small, accelerates quickly, and may have automatic controls? (545) A. Escalator B. Freight elevator C. Passenger elevator D. Construction elevator - C. Passenger elevator Hydraulic elevator operating systems are used in structures less than _____ stories high. (546) A. six B. eight C. ten D. twelve - A. six During an elevator rescue, extrication should begin immediately if occupants: (546) A. seem prone to panic. B. require medical attention. C. condition is medically stable. D. request immediate extrication. - B. Require medical attention If an elevator is equipped with a _____ it will return to the ground floor by inserting a key into the control panel. (546) A. recall system B. fire safety system C. hand crank system D. communication system - A. Recall system Which of the following BEST describes the location of an escalator's manual stop switch? (547) A. Next to the closest exit door B. On a handrail at the top of the unit C. In an equipment room located in the building
A. never stack high-pressure lift bags more than three high. B. refrain from stabilizing with cribbing. C. be thoroughly familiar with the equipment. D. place plywood only between or above lift airbags. - C. Be thoroughly familiar with the equipment When performing disentanglement procedures, the firefighter should: A. gain access trough the front windshield. B. remove the patient before beginning patient care. C. wear personal protective equipment (PPE) appropriate for the hazards. D. remove the patient from the vehicle, not the vehicle from the patient.. - C. wear personal protective equipment (PPE) appropriate for the hazards. When using a spring-loaded center punch to open a window, the firefighter should press the center punch at the: A. center of the window. B. lower corner of the window. C. upper corner of the window. D. at the top of the window. - B. Lower corner of the window What guide should be used when cleaning power tools? A. The applicable National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard B. The American national Standards Institute (ANSI) guides on tool maintenance C. The manufacturers instructions D. Common sense and a thorough job - C. the manufacturers instructions The preferred method for forcing a tempered glass door is to: A. strike a sharp blow to the glass with a blunt tool. B. use the through-the-lock technique. C. use a saw to cut the frame. D. use a saw to cut the wall next to the door. - B. Use the through-the-lock technique The amount of water used to contro la fire indicates: A. that there may be additional weight on walls and floors. B. the likelihood that the fire was a result of arson. C. how many firefighters will be needed for overhaul. D. how many salvage covers will be needed. - D. How many salvage covers will be needed Whenever possible, forced mechanical ventilation should be directed: A. on the upward side. B. on the windward side. C. in the same direction as the wind. D. in the same direction as mater stream operations. - C. In the same direction as the wind
Natural roof ventilation openings consist of: A. cutting a 4 ft. X 4 ft. hole. B. trench cutting and smoke ejectors. C. scuttle hatches, skylights, stairwell openings and bulkheads. D. fire streams from aerial ladders directed across a ventilation opening. - C. Scuttle hatches, skylights, stairwell openings and bulkheads Which is considered a natural or normal roof opening? A. Parapet B. Skylight C. Soffit D. Fire stop - B. Skylight To localize a fire and create a chimney effect, the primary ventilation hole should be placed: A. at the far end of the roof on the leeward side. B. directly over the fire. C. at the far end of the roof on the windward side. D. in an area where the supplemental forced or mechanical ventilation can easily be added later if needed. - B. Directly over the fire Which is a warning sign of unsafe roof conditions? A. A spongy feel as you walk on the roof B. Flat roofs with masonry walls C. multiple layers of roofing materials built upon itself, adding weight to the structural members D. Fire in incipient stage - A. a spongy feel as you walk on the roof Positive pressure ventilation is effective: A. when the opening of doors and windows in the structure can be controlled. B. only if you can create a lower pressure zone in the structure. C. if the exhaust opening is smaller than the entry point, creating a Venturi effect. D. if an entire floor is ventilated at a time, starting at the highest floor and working down. - B. only if you can create a lower pressure zone in the structure Which statement regarding duct systems is true? A. The heating, ventilation, and air-conditiong system (HVAC) should be shut down immediately by fire department personnel to alleviate the spread of heat/smoke and fanning of hidden fire. B. Firefighters should be familiar with manual controls of a building's HVAC system. C. Firefighters should turn the system in reverse mode to exhaust products of combustion. D. Only the blowers should be activated for ventilation purposes. - B. Firefighter should be familiar with manual controls of a buildings HVAC system
