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Firefighter 2 final exam questions complete version, Exams of Advanced Education

Cheyney University of Pennsylvania Advanced Education

Firefighter 2 final exam questions complete version

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 03/02/2026

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Firefighter 2 final exam questions complete

version

1.

What does an initial radio report provide? (116-117)

A. Transfer of command

B. Description of conditions as they appear

C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm

D.

Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint: b

2. Which of the following should be in an arrival report? (117)

A.

Number of victims

B. Discussion of command

C. Correct address of the incident

D. Emergency medical services on scene: c

3. Which of the following provides the telecommunications center

with a con- tinuous record of actions at scene? (117-118)

A.

Arrival

report

B. Progress report

C.

Initial radio report

D. Personal accountability report: c

4.

What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during

a progress report? (118)

A.

Requesting multiple or special alarms

B. Providing periodic time transmissions

C.

Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene

D.

Giving command in the absence of command staff: b

5. must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear

statement that

alerts all listeners. (119)

A.

Arrival

reports

B.

Emergency radio traffic

Discover Exams of Advanced Education Cheyney University of Pennsylvania

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Firefighter 2 final exam questions complete

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What does an initial radio report provide? (116-117) A. Transfer of command B. Description of conditions as they appear C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm D. Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint: b
Which of the following should be in an arrival report? (117) A. Number of victims B. Discussion of command C. Correct address of the incident D. Emergency medical services on scene: c
Which of the following provides the telecommunications center with a con- tinuous record of actions at scene? (117-118) A. Arrival report B. Progress report C. Initial radio report D. Personal accountability report: c
What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during a progress report? (118) A. Requesting multiple or special alarms B. Providing periodic time transmissions C. Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene D. Giving command in the absence of command staff: b
must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear statement that alerts all listeners. (119) A. Arrival reports B. Emergency radio traffic

2 / 98 C. Tactical progress reports D. Additional resource requests: b

Which of the following would be a reason to request a personnel accountabil- ity report (PAR)? (121) A. The primary search is started. B. A secondary search is completed. C. An emergency evacuation is ordered. D. The public information officer requests it.: c
Which of the following BEST explains why information is gathered for a postincident report? (122) A. Reviewing tactical operations errors B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys D. Providing information to media before the official report: b
What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122) A. Informs other responding units of current conditions B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene: c
What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123) A. Witness names B. Dispatch transmissions C. Estimated cost of damage D. Number of people interviewed: c
Knowing types of doors and door hardware can help firefighters: (190) A. judge roof safety. B. predict fire development. C. select correct forcible entry tools.

4 / 98 B. Mansard C. Sawtooth D. Bowstring truss: d

Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194) A. Fire detection systems may be damaged. B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread. C. Building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place. D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part of the building while work goes on in the other.: c
Renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all: (195) A. renovations hazards. B. structural collapse factors. C. building construction hazards. D. impossible to estimate the impact of on a structure.: b
Which of the following BEST describes when structural collapse may occur? (197) A. It can occur when all the factors are met. B. It can only occur before fire suppression. C. It can only occur during fire suppression. D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished.: d
In what fire stage is structural collapse very likely? (197) A. Incipient B. Growth C. Fully developed D. Decay: d
How much is added to the weight of floors for every U.S. gallon (SI liter) used during suppression? (198) A. 5.22 pounds (2.37 kilograms) B. 6.25 pounds (2.83 kilograms)

5 / 98 C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kilograms) D. 10.22 pounds (4.63 kilograms): c

When a collapse is imminent, personnel in the collapse zone. (199) A. should never work B. are allowed to work C. may stay for twenty minutes D. may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream: d
Which of the following BEST describes where the collapse zone is estab- lished? (199) A. Adjacent to any exposed interior walls B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls C. Near any area that is 10 feet (3.04 m) from exterior walls D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls: b
For which construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern? (199) A. Type I B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V: a
When exposed to temperatures above unprotected steel will expand and twist. (199) A. 300°F (149°C) B. 500°F (260°C) C. 900°F (482°C) D. 1,000°F (538°C): d
A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when: (200) A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse. B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting. C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time.

7 / 98

Which rescue tool uses includes tools to drag materials away to free victims? (486) A. Lifting B. Pulling C. Cutting D. Stabilizing: b
Tool capabilities vary depending on: (486) A. age of tool. B. user ability. C. age of tool and power source. D. manufacturer and power source.: d
Which rescue tool power source is typically powered by pumps? (488) A. Electric B. Hydraulic C. Pneumatic D. Electric/pneumatic: b
Which hydraulic/electric tool is excellent for a small rapid- interventions ve- hicle? (489) A. Shears B. Spreaders C. Extension rams D. Combination spreader/shears: d
Which type of rescue tools are typically vehicle repair tools adapted to fire service use? (490) A. Pulling tools B. Cutting tools C. Power rescue tools D. Pneumatic and manual rescue tools: d
What type of saw is often used for delicate cutting operations? (492) A. Rotary saw B. Circular saw

8 / 98 C. Whizzer saw D. Reciprocating saw: c

During vehicle extrication operations what BEST type of surface to place a jack on? (493) A. A flat, level surface B. A soft, angled surface C. The surface closest to the vehicle D. The surface farthest from the vehicle: a
Which jack is operated by using the jack to tighten and support a shoring/sta- bilizing system? (494) A. Screw jack B. Hydraulic jack C. Trench screw jack D. Ratchet-lever jack: c
What stabilizing tool uses a system of at least three posts wedged between the ground and a vehicle resting on its side or top? (495) A. Hydraulic jack B. Wheel chocks C. Ratchet-lever jack D. Buttress tension system: d
Automotive Engineers standards? (495) A. Wheel chocks B. Hydraulic jack C. Cribbing materials D. Buttress tension system: a
Which BEST describes why plastic cribbing may be preferred over wood cribbing? (496) A. It is less expensive to buy. B. It is lighter and lasts longer. C. It will not slip under wet conditions. D. It is rated so that quality is ensured.: b

10 / 98 roof openings? (502) A. Impact tools B. Come-alongs C. Steel cable winch D. Pneumatic nailers: d

Which of the following BEST describes when power tools should be inspect- ed? (503) A. At the end of each shift B. At the beginning of each shift C. Just after use while at an incident scene D. Just before use while at an incident scene: b
What step of extrication begins at dispatch and continues throughout the incident? (504) A. Size-up B. Stabilizing the vehicle C. Securing the electrical system D. Securing passenger safety systems: a
Which of the following methods of controlling hazards BEST describes one way to control traffic hazards at an incident scene? (505) A. Allow traffic in one direction only B. Stop all vehicular traffic within one mile C. Maintain constant situational awareness D. Have a significant law enforcement presence: c
Which of the following vehicle extrication hazards can be isolated by deacti- vating undeployed air bags? (506) A. Fire B. Traffic C. Sharp objects D. Blood borne pathogens: a
Which of the following vehicle extrication hazards can be mitigated by cov- ering sharp edges with used fire hose? (507)

11 / 98 A. Fire B. Traffic C. Sharp objects D. Blood borne pathogens: d

Which of the following BEST describes the minimum level of protection that should be on stand-by at vehicle extrication incidents? (508) A. A single firefighter standing by with a charged hoseline B. A single firefighter standing by with a portable extinguisher C. Three firefighters standing by, each with a portable extinguisher D. An entire fire crew standing by with charged hoselines and equipment: a
What type of vehicle is powered by a bank of batteries that must be plugged into a charging station and has a relatively short driving range? (508) A. Electric vehicle B. Hydraulic vehicle C. Conventional vehicle D. Hybrid electric vehicle: a
Hybrid vehicles that use color-coded wiring use to mark high voltage wiring. (510) A. red B. black C. green D. orange: d
Which of the following is a duty that is part of assessing the immediate area around a vehicle during an extrication operation? (511) A. Assess condition and position of vehicles B. Check for involved vehicles that might not be visible C. Assess damage to structures that may present a hazard D. Check for victims who might have been ejected from vehicles: a

13 / 98 A. the same as the weight being secured. B. in excess of the weight being secured. C. within 5 pounds (2.26 kg) of the weight being secured. D. within 10 pounds (4.53 kg) of the weight being secured.: b

What type of extrication method is used to stabilize a vehicle that is upside down or lying on its side? (516) A. Lifting jack system B. Buttress tension system C. Adjustable struts system D. Pneumatic lifting bag system: b
When cutting power cables in a nonelectric vehicle cut: (517) A. before unlocking power doors. B. before lowering power windows. C. the negative first, then the positive. D. the positive first, then the negative.: c
How long is the electrical system in an electric vehicle considered unsafe after the ignition has been shut down? (518) A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes: a
Which of the following passenger safety systems can deploy at up to 200 mph (322 km/h), generating potentially lethal force? (519-520) A. Seat belt pretensioners B. Head protection systems C. Extendable roll over protection systems D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems: d
Which of the following passenger safety systems can be found either behind the front seat in small sports cars or in the rear window deck of convertibles? (521) A. Seat belt pretensioners

14 / 98 B. Head protection systems C. Extendable roll over protection systems D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems: c

Which describes the BEST method to access a victim during vehicle extrica- tion? (522) A. The method more firefighters know. B. The method that is simplest and fastest. C. The method that requires the least amount of responders. D. The method that uses the least amount of equipment on scene.: b
Which BEST describes where safety glass is commonly used in vehicle win- dows? (522) A. Mirrors B. Side windows C. Windshields and side windows D. Windshields and rear windows: d
Using your opposite hand to support the hand holding the center punch prevents: (525) A. glass from breaking without warning. B. glass shards from entering the vehicle. C. glass from falling straight down onto victims. D. the center punch from hitting the victim close to the glass.: d
What method of gaining access to victims can be accomplished by cutting hinges, breaking a latch mechanism, or compromising locks? (526) A. Prying a door open B. Removing a window C. Cutting through posts D. Removing the vehicle roof: a
When removing a roof, firefighters cut just below roof level to avoid cutting which of the following? (527) A. Fuel lines B. Live electrical wires

16 / 98

Which of the following personnel are allowed in the hot zone? (534) A. Those personnel who are working the incident B. Those directly involved in resolving the emergency C. Those members of the general public watching the incident D. Those directly supporting the personnel resolving the emergency: b
What type of structural collapse pattern occurs when the exterior walls of a structure collapse? (536) A. Pancake B. Lean-to C. V-shaped D. Cantilever: a
What type of structural collapse occurs when the floor and/or roof assem- blies on both sides of a load-bearing wall collapse, allowing a good chance of victim survival? (538) A. A-frame B. Pancake C. V-shaped D. Cantilever: a
What type of technical rescue involves physical hazards such as debris that is sharp, jagged, or unstable as well as exposed wiring and rebar? (538) A. Water rescue B. Vehicle rescue C. Confined-space rescue D. Structural collapse rescue: d
Firefighters without confined-space rescue training are limited to which of the following duties? (539) A. Performing non-entry rescues B. Performing less complex confined-space rescues C. Identifying physical hazards while performing rescue D.Relaying information about atmospheric hazards while performing

17 / 98 rescue: a

During confined-space rescue, all rescuers must have a attached to a harness that is constantly monitored. (540) A. search line B. PASS device C. portable radio D. supplied-air respirator: a
In the OATH method of signaling on a search line, two tugs represents: (540) A. O - ok B. H - help C. A - advance D. T - take-up slack: c
What is the first step during water rescue operations size-up? (541) A. Establish scene security B. Decide what rescue tasks may be required C. Assess the types of undercurrents on scene D. Determine if incident requires rescue or recovery: d
Which of the following BEST describes hazards specific to ice rescue opera- tions? (542) A. Victims unlikely to help with own rescue B. Oxygen deficiency due to inadequate ventilation C. Rescue must happen in rugged, inaccessible terrain D. Hazard created by debris trapped against upstream face: a
During trench rescue operations exit ladders should be placed no more than apart. (543) A. 25 feet (7.62 m) B. 30 feet (9.14 m) C. 50 feet (15.24 m) D. 65 feet (19.81 m): c

19 / 98

Which BEST describes the location of an escalator's manual stop switch? (547) A. Next to the closest exit door B. On a handrail at the top of the unit C. In an equipment room located in the building D. On nearby wall or handrail at top or bottom of unit: d
Which BEST describes the cause of the majority of escalator rescues? (547) A. Electrical issues that cause malfunctions B. Mechanical issues that cause malfunctions C. Clothing becoming caught between step treads D. Fingers and toes becoming caught between step treads: d
When responding to electrical rescue operations, always assume that elec- trical lines or equipment are: (548) A. energized. B. de-energized. C. safe to work with immediately. D. safe to work with after five minutes.: a
When an energized wire is in contact with the ground, the current: (549) A. does not flow into the ground. B. flows straight down into the ground. C. flows in all directions from point of contact. D. flows into the ground but only for five minutes.: c
he guidelines for service testing fire hose are provided in NFPA®: (872) A. 472. B. 1002. C. 1620. D. 1962.: d
Which of the following should be performed before service testing fire hose? (872) A. Examine hose for recent use

20 / 98 B. Remove all couplings and gaskets C. Remove from service all hose with defects D. Examine hose for excessive wear or damage: d

The test site for service testing should be: (872) A. on a gravel area. B. on a slight grade. C. as close to the station as possible. D. large enough to lay out hose with multiple kinks.: b
Which of the following equipment is necessary for service testing? (872) A. Hose clamps B. Chaffing blocks C. A hose-washing machine D. Nozzles with shutoff valves: d
Which of the following procedures should be followed when service testing fire hose? (873) A. Close all valves as quickly as possible B. Pick up all large-diameter hose before charging it C. Stand away from the discharge valve connection when charging hose D. Connect the hose to discharges on the pump panel side of the apparatus: c
Which action of fire fighting foam creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire? (967) A. Cooling B. Aerating C. Separating D. Penetrating: c
Foam lowers surface tension of water, allowing it to fires in Class A materials. (967) A. cool B. smother

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