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FLORIDA CLASS G ARMED SECURITY OFFICER VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST VERSION 2026/ Q1. What is a Florida Class G license? ANSWER A statewide firearm license required for security officers and private investigators who carry a firearm while performing regulated duties under Chapter 493, Florida Statutes. Q2. Who is required to have a Class G license? ANSWER Any Class C, CC, D, M, MA, or MB licensee who bears a firearm while on duty. Q3. Can a security officer carry a firearm with only a Class D license? ANSWER No. A Class G license is required in addition to the Class D license. Q4. What is the minimum age to apply for a Class G license? ANSWER 18 years of age, though you must be 21 to carry concealed. Q5. How many hours of training are required for initial Class G licensure? ANSWER 28 hours of range and classroom training. Q6. Who must provide the Class G training? ANSWER A licensed Class K Firearms Instructor. Q7. Within what timeframe must the training be completed before applying? ANSWER Within the preceding 12 months. Q8. What is the maximum amount of range training hours allowed in the 28 - hour course? ANSWER No more than 8 hours may consist of range training. Q9. What are the citizenship requirements for a Class G license? ANSWER Must be a U.S. citizen or legal resident alien. Q10. Can a person with a felony conviction obtain a Class G license? ANSWER No. Felony convictions generally disqualify applicants. Q11. What disqualifies someone from obtaining a Class G license regarding domestic violence? ANSWER Any conviction for domestic violence disqualifies the applicant.
Q12. Is a psychological evaluation required for Class G licensure? ANSWER A temporary Class G license requires mental/emotional stability certification via psychological test, psychiatrist evaluation, or DD-214. Q13. What is the application fee for a Class G license? ANSWER $112 plus a $42 fingerprint processing fee. Q14. How long does the approval process typically take? ANSWER 4 - 8 weeks. Q15. Can you work armed security while waiting for Class G approval? ANSWER No. You cannot work armed until the license is received, but you can work unarmed with a Class D license. Q16. What happens if you fail to complete annual requalification? ANSWER You must retake the entire 28-hour course. Q17. How many firearms can a Class G licensee carry on duty? ANSWER No more than two firearms. Q18. What is the annual requalification requirement for Class G? ANSWER 4 hours of requalifying training each year. Q19. What is the passing score for the firearms qualification? ANSWER At least 168 out of 240 (70%). Q20. How many attempts are allowed to pass the firearms qualification? ANSWER Up to three attempts. Q21. What happens if you fail all three qualification attempts? ANSWER You must seek additional remedial training and schedule another requalification attempt. Q22. Is a concealed weapon license (CWFL) sufficient to work armed security? ANSWER No. It is illegal to work armed security with only a CWFL; a Class G license is required. Q23. What licenses must be possessed to carry a concealed firearm while working security? ANSWER Class D license (or other qualifying license) AND Class G license, and you must be 21 or older. Q24. Can a Class G licensee carry a concealed firearm anywhere in Florida while on duty? ANSWER Yes, the authority is valid statewide while performing services within the scope of the license. Q25. What must the Class G license clearly indicate if carrying concealed? ANSWER It must clearly indicate such authority.
Q38. What is the "Use of Force" doctrine? ANSWER The principle that only reasonable and necessary force may be used to accomplish lawful objectives. Q39. When is deadly force justified under Florida law? ANSWER When necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to oneself or others, or to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony. Q40. Can a security officer use deadly force to protect property only? ANSWER Generally no. Deadly force is not justified solely to protect property. Q41. What is the "Castle Doctrine"? ANSWER The legal principle that a person has no duty to retreat from their home before using reasonable force, including deadly force. Q42. Does the Castle Doctrine apply to security officers at work? ANSWER Limited application; security officers generally have a duty to act within the scope of their employment and training. Q43. What is "Stand Your Ground" under Florida law? ANSWER A person who is in a place where they have a right to be has no duty to retreat and has the right to stand their ground. Q44. Does Stand Your Ground apply to security officers? ANSWER It may apply, but security officers must still act within the bounds of their training and legal authority. Q45. What is the difference between a security officer and a police officer regarding arrest powers? ANSWER Security officers have limited citizen arrest powers; they do not have the same authority as law enforcement. Q46. Can a security officer give a Miranda warning? ANSWER No. Security officers are not law enforcement and Miranda warnings are not required for private security actions. Q47. What is a citizen's arrest? ANSWER A private person may arrest an individual who has committed a felony in their presence or a breach of the peace. Q48. What are the limitations of a citizen's arrest? ANSWER Security officers must use only reasonable force and cannot detain for extended periods without law enforcement involvement. Q49. What is Chapter 790, Florida Statutes? ANSWER Weapons and Firearms regulations.
Q50. What is Section 776.012, Florida Statutes? ANSWER Justifiable use of force in defense of person. Q51. What is Section 776.013, Florida Statutes? ANSWER Home protection; use or threatened use of deadly force (Castle Doctrine). Q52. What is Section 776.031, Florida Statutes? ANSWER Defense of others and defense of property. Q53. What is Section 776.041, Florida Statutes? ANSWER Use of force by aggressor. Q54. What is Section 776.051, Florida Statutes? ANSWER Preemption of firearms regulation by local governments. Q55. Can a security officer carry a firearm in a school zone? ANSWER Generally no, unless specifically authorized by law or contract. Q56. Can a security officer carry a firearm in a bar or establishment serving alcohol? ANSWER Generally prohibited unless specifically authorized and necessary for duties. Q57. What is the legal drinking age for a Class G licensee? ANSWER 21, but alcohol consumption while armed is prohibited. Q58. Can a security officer carry a firearm while under the influence of medication? ANSWER No. Any substance that impairs judgment or coordination prohibits firearm carry. Q59. What is the legal definition of "brandishing" a firearm? ANSWER Displaying a weapon in a threatening or angry manner, which may be illegal. Q60. Can a security officer draw their weapon to intimidate? ANSWER No. Drawing a weapon must be justified by a legitimate threat of harm. Q61. What is "assault" under Florida law? ANSWER An intentional, unlawful threat by word or act to do violence to another person. Q62. What is "battery" under Florida law? ANSWER Actually and intentionally touching or striking another person against their will. Q63. What is "aggravated assault"? ANSWER Assault with a deadly weapon without intent to kill. Q64. What is "aggravated battery"? ANSWER Battery that intentionally causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement.
Q80. What must the incident report contain after a firearm discharge? ANSWER Explanation of the incident, necessity for using the firearm, and a copy of any law enforcement report. SECTION 3: FIREARMS SAFETY & MECHANICS (Questions 81-140) Q81. What are the four fundamental rules of firearms safety? ANSWER 1) Treat all guns as loaded, 2) Never point at anything you don't intend to shoot, 3) Keep finger off trigger until ready to fire, 4) Be sure of target and what's beyond it. Q82. What is the "safety" on a firearm? ANSWER A mechanical device that blocks the trigger or firing pin to prevent accidental discharge. Q83. Should you rely solely on the mechanical safety? ANSWER No. Mechanical safeties can fail; safe handling practices are primary. Q84. What is a "muzzle"? ANSWER The front end of the barrel where the bullet exits. Q85. What is "muzzle discipline"? ANSWER Always keeping the muzzle pointed in a safe direction. Q86. What is the "breech"? ANSWER The rear part of the barrel chamber where the cartridge is loaded. Q87. What is the "chamber"? ANSWER The part of the barrel that holds the cartridge ready for firing. Q88. What is a "caliber"? ANSWER The internal diameter of the barrel or the diameter of the bullet. Q89. What calibers are approved for Class G licensees? ANSWER. revolver; .380, 9mm, .357 (with .38 ammo), .40, or .45 ACP. Q90. Can a Class G licensee carry a .357 revolver? ANSWER Yes, but only with .38 caliber ammunition. Q91. What is a "semi-automatic" pistol? ANSWER A firearm that automatically loads the next round after firing but requires a trigger pull for each shot. Q92. What is a "revolver"? ANSWER A handgun with a rotating cylinder containing multiple chambers for cartridges.
Q93. What is a "magazine"? ANSWER A detachable container that holds cartridges for feeding into the firearm. Q94. What is a "speed loader"? ANSWER A device used to quickly reload a revolver cylinder. Q95. What is a "stovepipe" jam? ANSWER A malfunction where a spent casing is caught vertically in the ejection port. Q96. What is a "double feed"? ANSWER A malfunction where two rounds attempt to enter the chamber simultaneously. Q97. What is "Immediate Action" for a malfunction? ANSWER Tap-Rack- Assess: Tap the magazine, rack the slide, assess the situation. Q98. What is "Remedial Action" for a malfunction? ANSWER More complex clearing procedures when Immediate Action fails. Q99. What is "dry firing"? ANSWER Practicing trigger control without live ammunition. Q100. Is dry firing safe? ANSWER Yes, when done with an unloaded firearm in a safe direction, but some manufacturers recommend snap caps. Q101. What is "trigger discipline"? ANSWER Keeping the finger off the trigger and outside the trigger guard until ready to fire. Q102. What is "sighting"? ANSWER Aligning the front and rear sights with the target for accurate shooting. Q103. What is "sight picture"? ANSWER The alignment of the sights with the target as seen by the shooter. Q104. What is "sight alignment"? ANSWER Proper positioning of the front sight in relation to the rear sight. Q105. What is "dominant eye"? ANSWER The eye that provides the brain with the most accurate visual information. Q106. How do you determine your dominant eye? ANSWER Extend arms and form a triangle; focus on an object and bring hands back to face; the eye the triangle lands on is dominant. Q107. What is "stance" in shooting? ANSWER The body position used to support the firearm and absorb recoil. Q108. What is the "Weaver stance"? ANSWER A two-handed grip with the strong-side foot slightly back and body bladed.
Q125. What should you do if you suspect a squib load? ANSWER Stop firing immediately, keep the muzzle pointed downrange, and have the firearm inspected. Q126. What is a "hangfire"? ANSWER A delay between the primer ignition and the propellant ignition. Q127. What should you do during a hangfire? ANSWER Keep the firearm pointed downrange for at least 30 seconds before clearing. Q128. What is "muzzle awareness"? ANSWER Constant awareness of where the muzzle is pointing at all times. Q129. What is "backstop"? ANSWER A barrier designed to stop or catch bullets on a firing range. Q130. What is a "hot range"? ANSWER A range where firearms may be loaded and fired under supervision. Q131. What is a "cold range"? ANSWER A range where all firearms must be unloaded and actions open. Q132. What is "range safety officer" (RSO)? ANSWER The person responsible for overseeing safe range operations. Q133. What is "cease fire"? ANSWER The command to immediately stop firing and make firearms safe. Q134. What is "commence fire"? ANSWER The command to begin firing when ready. Q135. What is "load and make ready"? ANSWER The command to load the firearm and prepare to fire. Q136. What is "unload and show clear"? ANSWER The command to remove all ammunition and demonstrate the firearm is empty. Q137. What is "slide lock"? ANSWER When the slide remains open after the last round has been fired. Q138. What is "decocking"? ANSWER Safely lowering the hammer on a loaded chamber without firing. Q139. What is a "double-action" trigger? ANSWER A trigger mechanism that both cocks and releases the hammer in one pull. Q140. What is a "single-action" trigger? ANSWER A trigger mechanism that only releases an already cocked hammer.
**SECTION 4: WEAPON HANDLING & OPERATIONS (Questions 141-
Q141. What is the "4-step draw"?** ANSWER A standardized procedure for drawing a firearm from a holster safely and efficiently. Q142. What are the steps in the 4-step draw? ANSWER 1) Grip, 2) Release retention, 3) Draw to retention, 4) Extend and acquire sights. Q143. Why is the 4-step draw important? ANSWER It promotes muscle memory, safety, and efficient weapon deployment under stress. Q144. What is a "retention holster"? ANSWER A holster with mechanisms to prevent unauthorized weapon access. Q145. What is "weapon retention"? ANSWER Techniques to prevent an assailant from taking your firearm. Q146. What is "sul" position? ANSWER A low-ready position where the firearm is held close to the body, pointed down. Q147. What is "low ready"? ANSWER A position where the firearm is pointed down but ready to be raised and fired. Q148. What is "high ready"? ANSWER A position where the firearm is held at chest level, pointed up or forward. Q149. When should a firearm be kept in the holster? ANSWER Whenever there is no immediate threat requiring the use of deadly force. Q150. What is "scanning" after firing? ANSWER Assessing the environment for additional threats after engaging a target. Q151. What is "situational awareness"? ANSWER Being conscious of your surroundings and potential threats at all times. Q152. What is "cover"? ANSWER Protection that can stop bullets (e.g., concrete walls, engine blocks). Q153. What is "concealment"? ANSWER Protection that hides you from view but may not stop bullets (e.g., bushes, drywall). Q154. What is the difference between cover and concealment? ANSWER Cover stops bullets; concealment only hides you.
Q171. Why should you look the firearm into the holster? ANSWER To ensure no obstructions (clothing, straps) could cause an accidental discharge. Q172. What is "trigger guard"? ANSWER The ring around the trigger that prevents accidental contact. Q173. What is "hammer"? ANSWER The part that strikes the firing pin or primer to ignite the cartridge. Q174. What is "striker-fired"? ANSWER A firing mechanism where a spring-loaded striker hits the primer directly. Q175. What is a "Glock"? ANSWER A popular striker-fired semi-automatic pistol. Q176. What is a "1911"? ANSWER A classic single-action semi-automatic pistol design by John Browning. Q177. What is "cocked and locked"? ANSWER Carrying a 1911-style pistol with the hammer cocked and thumb safety engaged. Q178. What is "condition 1" carry? ANSWER Cocked and locked with a round in the chamber. Q179. What is "condition 3" carry? ANSWER Magazine inserted, chamber empty, hammer down. Q180. What is "Israeli carry"? ANSWER Carrying with an empty chamber, requiring racking before firing. Q181. What is "drop safety"? ANSWER Mechanisms preventing discharge if the firearm is dropped. Q182. What is "firing pin block"? ANSWER A safety that blocks the firing pin until the trigger is pulled. Q183. What is "grip safety"? ANSWER A safety activated by squeezing the grip (e.g., 1911). Q184. What is "thumb safety"? ANSWER A manual safety operated by the thumb. Q185. What is "decocker"? ANSWER A lever that safely lowers the hammer without firing. Q186. What is "double-action/single-action" (DA/SA)? ANSWER A trigger system that is double-action for the first shot and single-action for subsequent shots.
Q187. What is "transition drill"? ANSWER Practice moving from one target to another efficiently. Q188. What is "multiple target engagement"? ANSWER Engaging several targets in sequence. Q189. What is "shooting on the move"? ANSWER Engaging targets while advancing, retreating, or moving laterally. Q190. What is "pivoting"? ANSWER Turning to engage threats to the rear or sides. **SECTION 5: MARKSMANSHIP & QUALIFICATION (Questions 191-
Q191. What is the B-27 target?** ANSWER The standard silhouette target used for Florida Class G qualification. Q192. What are the distances for Class G qualification? ANSWER 3, 5, 7, and 15 yards. Q193. How many rounds are fired for initial Class G qualification? ANSWER 144 total rounds (48 practice, 48 first qualification, 48 second qualification). Q194. How many rounds are fired for annual requalification? ANSWER 48 rounds. Q195. What is the scoring system for the B-27 target? ANSWER Scores based on shot placement within scoring rings (center mass highest). Q196. What is the minimum passing score? ANSWER 168 out of 240 possible points (70%). Q197. What is "point shooting"? ANSWER Firing without using sights, relying on body alignment and muscle memory. Q198. What is "instinctive shooting"? ANSWER Similar to point shooting, relying on natural hand-eye coordination. Q199. What is "front sight focus"? ANSWER Focusing on the front sight while the rear sight and target are slightly blurred. Q200. What is "equal height, equal light"? ANSWER Ensuring the front sight is level with the rear sight and there is equal space on both sides.
Q218. What is "thumbs forward" grip? ANSWER Both thumbs pointing forward along the frame for maximum control. Q219. What is "crossed thumbs" grip? ANSWER A traditional revolver grip where thumbs cross on the side. Q220. What is "wrist lock"? ANSWER Keeping wrists firm and aligned to manage recoil. Q221. What is "isometric tension"? ANSWER Using opposing muscle groups to stabilize the firearm. Q222. What is "natural point of aim"? ANSWER The position where the body naturally points the firearm at the target. Q223. How do you find your natural point of aim? ANSWER Close eyes, extend firearm, open eyes and see where it points; adjust body, not arms. Q224. What is "bone support"? ANSWER Using skeletal structure rather than muscles to support the firearm. Q225. What is "muscular tension"? ANSWER Using muscles to hold the firearm; less stable than bone support. Q226. What is "rapid fire"? ANSWER Multiple shots fired in quick succession while maintaining control. Q227. What is "controlled pair"? ANSWER Two shots fired quickly with a brief pause for sight realignment. Q228. What is "hammer pair"? ANSWER Two shots fired as quickly as possible with minimal sight alignment between shots. Q229. What is " Mozambique Drill"? ANSWER Two shots to center mass, one to the head. Q230. What is "failure to stop" drill? ANSWER Another name for the Mozambique Drill. Q231. What is "one-hole drill"? ANSWER Practice firing multiple shots into the same hole to improve precision. Q232. What is "dot torture"? ANSWER A precision drill involving small targets at various distances. Q233. What is "draw to first shot" drill? ANSWER Timing how long it takes to draw and fire an accurate first shot.
Q234. What is "split time"? ANSWER The time between consecutive shots. Q235. What is "reaction time"? ANSWER The time to recognize a threat and begin the draw. Q236. What is "OODA loop"? ANSWER Observe, Orient, Decide, Act - the decision cycle in tactical situations. Q237. What is "combat mindset"? ANSWER The mental preparedness to take decisive action under extreme stress. Q238. What is "color code of awareness"? ANSWER White (unaware), Yellow (relaxed alert), Orange (specific alert), Red (action). Q239. What condition should a security officer maintain while on duty? ANSWER Condition Yellow - relaxed alertness, aware of surroundings. Q240. What is "after action review"? ANSWER Analyzing an incident to learn lessons and improve future response. SECTION 6: DUTY REQUIREMENTS & PROCEDURES (Questions 241 - 280) Q241. Must a Class G licensee carry their license while on duty? ANSWER Yes. The license must be carried at all times while armed. Q242. Must the firearm be visible while on duty? ANSWER Yes, unless authorized to carry concealed under specific conditions. Q243. What does "encased in view" mean? ANSWER The weapon must be holstered properly and visible at all times while on duty. Q244. Can a security officer remove their firearm while on break? ANSWER The firearm should remain secured in the holster unless needed for duty. Q245. Where must the firearm be stored when going off duty? ANSWER Properly secured and stored according to agency policy and safety standards. Q246. Can a security officer consume alcohol while carrying a firearm? ANSWER Absolutely not. Alcohol and firearms are incompatible. Q247. What is the "use of force continuum"? ANSWER A structured policy guiding escalation from verbal commands to physical force to deadly force.
Q263. What must be done after any use of force incident? ANSWER Report the incident immediately to supervisors and document thoroughly. Q264. What must be done after discharging a firearm on duty? ANSWER Notify the Division of Licensing within 5 working days with detailed explanation. Q265. What information must the discharge report contain? ANSWER Nature of incident, necessity for using firearm, and copy of law enforcement report. Q266. What happens if the discharge report is not submitted? ANSWER The department may revoke or suspend the Class G license and the agency license. Q267. Can a security officer modify their duty firearm? ANSWER Only modifications approved by the agency and within legal parameters. Q268. What is "duty ammunition"? ANSWER The specific ammunition authorized by the agency for duty carry. Q269. Can a security officer use personally owned ammunition? ANSWER Only if approved by the agency and meets duty specifications. Q270. What is "chain of custody"? ANSWER Documentation tracking evidence from collection to court presentation. Q271. How should a crime scene be preserved after a shooting? ANSWER Secure the area, prevent contamination, and preserve evidence until law enforcement arrives. Q272. What is "spoliation of evidence"? ANSWER Intentional or negligent destruction or alteration of evidence. Q273. Can a security officer discuss a shooting incident with colleagues before police arrive? ANSWER Limit discussion to necessary tactical information; detailed statements should wait for legal counsel. Q274. What is "excited utterance"? ANSWER Statements made spontaneously under stress that may be admissible in court. Q275. What is the "Fifth Amendment"? ANSWER Protection against self- incrimination; right to remain silent. Q276. Should a security officer invoke the Fifth Amendment after a shooting? ANSWER Cooperate with investigation but consult legal counsel before making detailed statements.
Q277. What is "qualified immunity"? ANSWER Legal protection for government officials acting in good faith within their authority. Q278. Do private security officers have qualified immunity? ANSWER Generally no; they are private employees subject to different liability standards. Q279. What insurance considerations apply to armed security work? ANSWER Agencies must carry adequate liability insurance; individual officers may need additional coverage. Q280. What is "indemnification"? ANSWER An agreement where one party agrees to cover losses or damages incurred by another. SECTION 7: EMERGENCY PROCEDURES & REPORT WRITING (Questions 281-300) Q281. What are the seven essential parts of a report? ANSWER Who, what, when, where, how, why, and action taken. Q282. What should never go into a report? ANSWER Personal opinions, judgments, or interpretations. Q283. What is the purpose of an incident report? ANSWER To document facts and events creating a permanent, objective record. Q284. How soon should an incident report be written after an event? ANSWER As soon as possible while memory is fresh. Q285. What is "contemporaneous notes"? ANSWER Notes taken at the time of the incident for accuracy. Q286. What should be included in a use of force report? ANSWER Subject actions, officer response, witnesses, injuries, and medical treatment provided. Q287. What is "exculpatory evidence"? ANSWER Evidence favorable to the defendant that must be disclosed. Q288. What is "Brady material"? ANSWER Evidence favorable to the accused that could impact guilt or punishment. Q289. What should be done if evidence is found at a scene? ANSWER Secure it, document location, and turn over to law enforcement. Q290. What is "photographic evidence"? ANSWER Photos documenting the scene, injuries, or property damage.
