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Core Competencies Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a professional Code of Ethics? A) To increase profit margins for the organization B) To provide a framework for consistent and responsible decision‑making C) To replace all legal requirements with internal policies D) To eliminate the need for managerial oversight Answer: B Explanation: A Code of Ethics offers guiding principles that help professionals act responsibly and consistently, especially when faced with ambiguous situations. Question 2. An employee discovers that a vendor is offering a personal gift in exchange for preferential treatment. Which ethical principle is most directly violated? A) Transparency B) Accountability C) Conflict of interest D) Confidentiality Answer: C Explanation: Accepting personal benefits that could influence business decisions creates a conflict of interest, undermining impartiality. Question 3. When an ethical concern cannot be resolved at the team level, the appropriate next step is to: A) Ignore the issue to avoid conflict B) Escalate the concern to a higher authority or ethics officer C) Publicly disclose the issue on social media D) Conduct a personal investigation without notifying anyone
Core Competencies Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Proper escalation ensures the issue receives appropriate oversight and resolution while maintaining organizational integrity. Question 4. Under the GDPR, which right allows individuals to request the deletion of their personal data? A) Right to data portability B) Right to be informed C) Right to be forgotten D) Right to restrict processing Answer: C Explanation: The “right to be forgotten” (right to erasure) permits individuals to have their personal data deleted under certain conditions. Question 5. Which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI)? A) A public health statistic published by a government agency B) A patient’s name combined with their medical diagnosis C) An employee’s salary information D) A company’s marketing brochure Answer: B Explanation: PHI includes any individually identifiable health information, such as a name linked to a diagnosis. Question 6. In data classification, which category typically requires the highest level of security controls? A) Public
Core Competencies Practice Exam
Question 9. Active listening includes which of the following behaviors? A) Interrupting to correct the speaker’s errors immediately B) Summarizing the speaker’s points to confirm understanding C) Planning your response while the other person is talking D) Ignoring non‑verbal cues to focus on the words alone Answer: B Explanation: Summarizing demonstrates that you have heard and understood the speaker, a core component of active listening. Question 10. Which document is essential for maintaining an accurate record of decisions made during a project meeting? A) Project charter B) Decision log C) Risk register D) Work breakdown structure (WBS) Answer: B Explanation: A decision log captures the who, what, when, and why of each decision, providing traceability and accountability. Question 11. Qualitative data is best described as: A) Numerical measurements that can be statistically analyzed B) Data that can be counted and summed easily C) Descriptive information that captures qualities or characteristics D) Data stored exclusively in relational databases Answer: C
Core Competencies Practice Exam
Explanation: Qualitative data describes properties, attributes, or categories, such as opinions or observations, rather than numeric values. Question 12. Which stage of the data lifecycle involves transforming raw data into a format suitable for analysis? A) Capture B) Storage C) Processing D) Disposal Answer: C Explanation: Processing includes cleaning, transforming, and integrating data to prepare it for analytical use. Question 13. Data accuracy primarily concerns: A) The speed at which data is retrieved B) The degree to which data correctly reflects the real‑world entity it represents C) The amount of data stored in a system D) The format used to display the data Answer: B Explanation: Accuracy measures how closely data matches the true values or conditions it is intended to represent. Question 14. Which of the following is a core responsibility of a data steward in data governance? A) Writing application code for data entry B. Designing network topologies
Core Competencies Practice Exam
B) Causation can be inferred simply by observing a strong correlation C) Correlation indicates a statistical relationship, while causation implies a direct effect D) Correlation and causation are interchangeable terms in statistics Answer: C Explanation: Correlation shows a relationship’s strength and direction; causation requires evidence that one variable directly influences another. Question 18. The PDCA (Plan‑Do‑Check‑Act) cycle is primarily used for: A) Conducting risk assessments only B) Continuous improvement of processes and products C. Writing software code D. Performing financial audits Answer: B Explanation: PDCA provides a systematic approach to planning, implementing, reviewing, and refining processes for ongoing improvement. Question 19. The “5 Whys” technique is used to: A) Generate five alternative solutions for a problem B. Identify the root cause by repeatedly asking “Why?” until the underlying issue is uncovered C. Prioritize five most critical risks in a project D. Measure the impact of five different variables on performance Answer: B Explanation: By asking “Why?” up to five times, the technique helps peel back layers of symptoms to reveal the root cause. Question 20. A symptom of a problem is:
Core Competencies Practice Exam
A) The underlying cause that triggered the issue B) An observable effect that indicates something is wrong C. The final solution implemented to fix the issue D. A metric used to evaluate performance Answer: B Explanation: Symptoms are visible signs or outcomes that suggest a problem exists, distinct from the root cause. Question 21. In project management, the three constraints of the Project Management Triangle are: A. Scope, Quality, Stakeholder satisfaction B. Scope, Time, Cost C. Cost, Risk, Procurement D. Time, Communication, Resources Answer: B Explanation: Scope, time, and cost are interdependent; changing one impacts the others. Question 22. Which phase of the project lifecycle involves obtaining formal approval to proceed? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Closing Answer: A Explanation: Initiation includes defining objectives, creating a charter, and securing authorization to start the project.
Core Competencies Practice Exam
Explanation: Waterfall assumes a linear progression with fixed requirements, making it suitable for stable, well‑understood projects. Question 26. In Agile, the term “responding to change over following a plan” emphasizes: A. Ignoring all documentation B. Maintaining flexibility to adapt requirements as new information emerges C. Eliminating stakeholder involvement D. Delivering the entire product at once at the end of the project Answer: B Explanation: Agile values adaptability, allowing teams to adjust scope and priorities based on feedback and evolving needs. Question 27. In Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team? A. Scrum Master B. Project Sponsor C. Product Owner D. Stakeholder Representative Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner defines the product backlog, prioritizes items, and ensures the team delivers value. Question 28. A Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is best defined as: A. The final, fully featured version of a product B. A prototype with no functional features C. A product with just enough core features to satisfy early adopters and gather feedback
Core Competencies Practice Exam
D. An internal tool used only by the development team Answer: C Explanation: An MVP enables rapid market entry, allowing teams to learn from real users before investing in full development. Question 29. In Business Process Analysis, the “as‑is” model represents: A. The ideal future state after improvements B. The current, existing process flow with all its steps and interactions C. A hypothetical scenario that has never been implemented D. The cost estimate for a new system Answer: B Explanation: The “as‑is” diagram captures the present process to identify inefficiencies and areas for change. Question 30. Which of the following is an example of process redesign rather than automation? A. Implementing a robotic process automation (RPA) bot to enter data B. Re‑engineering a workflow to eliminate unnecessary approval steps and restructure responsibilities C. Adding a new software tool that mirrors the existing manual steps digitally D. Scheduling batch jobs to run overnight Answer: B Explanation: Redesign changes the underlying workflow, whereas automation merely digitizes existing steps. Question 31. A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) should be:
Core Competencies Practice Exam
B. Stores historical, aggregated data optimized for analysis and reporting C. Requires no backup strategy D. Is always hosted on the cloud Answer: B Explanation: Data warehouses consolidate and organize large volumes of historical data for analytical queries, unlike transactional systems that support day‑to‑day operations. Question 35. Transactional systems are best characterized by: A. High‑volume, read‑only queries B. Real‑time processing of inserts, updates, and deletes to support daily operations C. Storing only summarized data D. Supporting only batch processing at night Answer: B Explanation: Transactional (OLTP) systems handle frequent, short‑duration operations that modify data instantly. Question 36. Which of the following best defines an intranet? A. A public website accessible to anyone on the Internet B. A private network that uses Internet protocols to share information within an organization C. A secure connection between two separate organizations D. A cloud‑based service for external customers Answer: B Explanation: An intranet is a restricted network that leverages web technologies for internal communication and collaboration.
Core Competencies Practice Exam
Question 37. In cloud computing, which service model provides the most control over the underlying infrastructure? A. SaaS B. PaaS C. IaaS D. DaaS (Desktop as a Service) Answer: C Explanation: IaaS delivers virtualized hardware resources (servers, storage, networking), allowing users to manage OS, middleware, and applications. Question 38. A hybrid cloud deployment model: A. Uses only on‑premises servers B. Combines two or more cloud types (public, private) to achieve flexibility and scalability C. Is synonymous with a private cloud D. Requires all data to be stored in a public cloud Answer: B Explanation: Hybrid clouds integrate private and public environments, enabling data and workload portability. Question 39. An API primarily serves as: A. A user interface for end‑users B. A set of rules that allow different software applications to communicate and exchange data C. A hardware component that routes network traffic D. A database schema definition language Answer: B
Core Competencies Practice Exam
D. Demand a physical copy of every email the company sends them Answer: B Explanation: The California Consumer Privacy Act grants consumers the ability to prevent the sale of their personal data. Question 43. Which of the following best illustrates data timeliness? A. Storing data in an encrypted format B. Updating a sales dashboard every hour to reflect the latest transactions C. Using consistent naming conventions for columns D. Archiving old records after five years Answer: B Explanation: Timeliness refers to how current and up‑to‑date the data is for its intended use. Question 44. A “fishbone” diagram is also known as: A. Gantt chart B. Pareto chart C. Ishikawa diagram D. Control chart Answer: C Explanation: The fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram visualizes potential causes of a problem across categories. Question 45. In the context of risk mitigation, a “contingency plan” is: A. A strategy to completely eliminate a risk before it occurs B. An alternative action to be executed if a risk materializes
Core Competencies Practice Exam
C. A document that lists all project stakeholders D. A financial audit report Answer: B Explanation: Contingency plans outline steps to take when identified risks actually happen. Question 46. Which Agile ceremony is focused on inspecting the work completed in the last sprint and adapting the product backlog? A. Sprint Planning B. Daily Scrum C. Sprint Review D. Retrospective Answer: C Explanation: The Sprint Review demonstrates completed work and gathers feedback to refine the backlog. Question 47. During the “Do” phase of PDCA, the primary activity is: A. Establishing objectives and processes B. Executing the planned processes and collecting data C. Analyzing results against expectations D. Implementing corrective actions based on analysis Answer: B Explanation: The “Do” stage involves carrying out the plan and gathering performance data. Question 48. Which of the following is an example of a “proximate cause” in root‑cause analysis? A. The design flaw that allowed a component to fail
Core Competencies Practice Exam
A. Encrypt the primary key values B. Establish a link between two tables, referencing the primary key of another table C. Automatically generate sequential numbers for rows D. Store large text strings efficiently Answer: B Explanation: Foreign keys enforce referential integrity by connecting related records across tables. Question 52. Which of the following statements about “data integrity” is correct? A. It refers only to the physical security of storage devices B. It ensures that data remains accurate, consistent, and unaltered during its lifecycle C. It is synonymous with data backup D. It is only a concern for unstructured data Answer: B Explanation: Data integrity involves maintaining correctness and consistency of data throughout its use. Question 53. When presenting a scatter plot, a strong positive slope indicates: A. No relationship between the variables B. As one variable increases, the other tends to decrease C. As one variable increases, the other also tends to increase D. The data points are randomly distributed Answer: C Explanation: A positive slope shows a direct relationship where higher values of one variable correspond with higher values of the other.
Core Competencies Practice Exam
Question 54. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a data governance framework? A. Data stewardship roles B. Data quality metrics C. Daily operational task scheduling D. Policies for data access and usage Answer: C Explanation: Governance focuses on policies, standards, and oversight rather than routine operational scheduling. Question 55. In the context of stakeholder communication, “tailoring” means: A. Sending the same generic message to all audiences B. Adjusting the depth, tone, and format of information to meet the specific needs of each stakeholder group C. Ignoring stakeholder preferences to maintain consistency D. Using only technical jargon to demonstrate expertise Answer: B Explanation: Tailoring ensures relevance and comprehension by aligning communication with the audience’s expectations. Question 56. Which of the following best illustrates an “internal” data classification level? A. Public website content B. Confidential client health records C. Company’s internal policy manual not intended for external distribution D. Open‑source software code Answer: C
