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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – Complete NUR 283 Comp 1 exam guide for Galen College of Nursing. Includes 50 tested and verified questions with accurate answers covering Transition to Registered Nursing Practice. Designed for efficient revision, concept mastery, and exam success. NUR 283 comp 1 exam answers, Galen NUR283 comp 1 study guide PDF, transition to registered nursing practice exam, NUR283 questions answers PDF, Galen nursing comp exam prep, RN transition Q&A PDF, NUR 283 comp 1 revision notes, nursing exam answers PDF download, Galen college nursing comp 1 exam, transition nursing questions answers, NUR 283 comp exam prep materials, nursing study guide instant download, Galen comp 1 exam questions answers, RN transition study guide PDF, nursing exams preparation material, NUR283 comp 1 exam PDF download
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This document contains a collection of 50
tested and verified questions with accurate
answers from EXAM 1 of NUR 283 at the Galen
College of Nursing. It covers core topics assessed
in the course and reflects the actual exam format and
question style. Ideal for exam preparation and concept
reinforcement.
The nurse working on a pediatric unit has received the hand-off report and is reviewing client data and orders. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?:
A. A toddler with bronchiolitis on room air and mild wheezing.
B. The infant who has a diagnosis of pertussis and is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula.
C. A preschooler with otitis media awaiting discharge. D. A school-age child with a simple fracture in a cast.
Answer: B. The infant who has a diagnosis of pertussis and is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula.
Expert Rationale: Infants with pertussis are at high risk for apnea and severe respiratory compromise.
Any child on supplemental O₂ with a respiratory diagnosis is a higher priority than stable conditions. Early recognition and intervention are essential in pediatric safety.
A newly hired nurse is discussing health care economics and fiscal responsibility with the nurse preceptor. Which of the following statements about fiscally responsible practice by the newly hired nurse requires follow- up?:
A. “I should avoid waste by only opening supplies I actually need.” B. “Using evidence-based practices can help decrease length of stay.”
C. “Involving the family in client care activities is an example of fiscal responsibility.”
D. “Coordinating bundles of care can reduce repeated trips into the room.”
The nurse working in the labor and delivery (L&D) unit is caring for a client in labor whose membranes just spontaneously ruptured. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider (PHCP):
A. Early decelerations. B. Variable decelerations.
C. New appearance of late decelerations. D. Fetal heart rate accelerations.
Answer: C. New appearance of late decelerations.
Expert Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and potential fetal compromise; new onset requires prompt intervention and provider notification. Early decels and accelerations are generally reassuring; variables warrant action but are not as ominous as persistent lates.
The nurse working on a medical-surgical unit has been made aware of the following client situations. The nurse should first plan to assess the client who:
A. Is scheduled for discharge later today and needs final medication teaching.
B. Is receiving preparation for a colonoscopy and whose blood pressure (BP) was 128/74 mm Hg at the last reading and is now 106/60 mm Hg. C. Had a knee arthroscopy yesterday and reports pain at 4/10.
D. Is NPO for an abdominal ultrasound this morning.
Answer: B. Is receiving preparation for a colonoscopy and whose blood pressure (BP) was 128/74 mm Hg at the last reading and is now 106/60 mm Hg.
Expert Rationale: A drop in BP may indicate hypovolemia from bowel prep or other
hemodynamic instability and can quickly progress to shock if not addressed. In a transition-to-RN role, recognizing unstable trends and prioritizing potentially unstable clients is critical. The other clients are more stable and can safely wait.
The nurse has received the hand-off report and is assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse instruct the UAP to perform first?:
A. Assist a client post–hip replacement with first ambulation.
B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose on a client who had a hypoglycemic episode 30 minutes ago and received dextrose IV.
C. Change linens for a client who was incontinent of urine.
D. Take vital signs on a client scheduled for an afternoon surgery.
Answer: B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose on a client who had a hypoglycemic episode 30 minutes ago and received dextrose IV.
Expert Rationale: Rechecking the blood glucose after treatment of hypoglycemia is time- sensitive and determines if the treatment was effective. Delegating this stable but urgent reassessment to UAP is appropriate. The other tasks are important but less emergent.
The nurse preceptor is observing a newly hired nurse care for assigned clients. Which of the following actions by the newly hired nurse indicates correct care?:
The nurse has been made aware of the following client situations. The nurse should first plan to see the client who has:
A. Cervical cancer, is receiving internal radiation therapy, and whose partner has been visiting at the bedside the past 2 hours. B. COPD and is on 2 L/min of oxygen with an SpO₂ of 93%.
C. Type 2 diabetes with a glucose of 220 mg/dL before dinner. D. A stage II pressure injury needing a dressing change.
Answer: A. Cervical cancer, is receiving internal radiation therapy, and whose partner has been visiting at the bedside the past 2 hours.
Expert Rationale: Visitors to clients with internal radiation must be limited in time and distance due to radiation exposure. The nurse should assess and enforce safety precautions. The other clients are relatively stable and can be seen afterward.
The nurse is caring for a male client who has full-thickness burns to 50% of the lower body. It is a priority for the nurse to notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) if the client has a:
A. Temperature (T) of 99.2° F (37.3° C).
B. Temperature (T) of 100.4° F (38° C).
C. Temperature (T) of 104.2° F (40.1° C). D. Temperature (T) of 97.7° F (36.5° C).
Answer: C. Temperature (T) of 104.2° F (40.1° C).
Expert Rationale: A very high fever in a major burn client suggests sepsis or severe infection— life- threatening complications requiring immediate provider notification. Mild temperature variations are expected in burn and post-injury states.
The nurse working in the emergency department (ED) is assisting to triage clients following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority for treatment?:
A. A client with a simple arm laceration and controlled bleeding.
B. A client with second-degree burns to the chest and arms with a respiratory rate (RR) greater than 30.
C. A client with a closed tibia fracture and intact pulses. D. A client with minor abrasions and mild anxiety.
Answer: B. A client with second-degree burns to the chest and arms with a respiratory rate (RR) greater than 30.
Expert Rationale: In mass-casualty triage, compromised airway or breathing (burns to chest + tachypnea) gets immediate priority (red tag). Other injuries are important but do not threaten life as acutely.
The nurse is caring for a client who has severe hypocalcemia. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?:
A. Place the client on seizure precautions. B. Limit the client’s fluid intake.
C. Encourage high-phosphorus foods.
D. Place the client in high Fowler’s position at all times.
Answer: A. Place the client on seizure precautions.
Expert Rationale: Severe hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability, leading to tetany
C. Myasthenia gravis, ptosis of the left eye, and a nasal-sounding voice.
D. Mild seasonal allergies with clear nasal drainage.
Answer: B. A fever of 101.8° F and is reporting a headache, vomiting, and sensitivity to light.
Expert Rationale: Fever, headache, vomiting, and photophobia are classic signs of meningitis, which is both emergent and highly infectious. This client needs immediate isolation and evaluation. The others are stable or chronic issues.
The nurse is caring for a client who has a sealed radiation implant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?:
A. Assign a different nurse to care for the client each day.
B. Limit visitors to 30 minutes per day and have them stay at least 6 feet away. C. Place the client in a semiprivate room with another stable client.
D. Allow pregnant staff to provide care if they wear lead aprons.
Answer: B. Limit visitors to 30 minutes per day and have them stay at least 6 feet away.
Expert Rationale: Radiation safety includes time, distance, and shielding: minimize time, maximize distance, and use shielding as appropriate. Visitor time and proximity must be limited to reduce exposure. Assigning multiple nurses is not needed; pregnant staff should avoid these clients.
The nurse is caring for assigned clients when a fire with smoke is noted in the nurses' station. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?:
A. Use a bag valve mask to move a client on a mechanical ventilator.
B. Chart all assessments quickly before leaving the nurses’ station. C. Extinguish the fire before moving any clients.
D. Close all doors and wait for security to arrive.
Answer: A. Use a bag valve mask to move a client on a mechanical ventilator.
Expert Rationale: Using the RACE sequence, after sounding the alarm, the nurse must rescue clients in immediate danger—especially those dependent on equipment (ventilator). Manually ventilating while evacuating prioritizes life safety over documentation or property.
The nurse is teaching a class on health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following actions by the nurse is an example of primary prevention:
A. Recommending the use of helmets when riding bicycles or motorcycles.
B. Scheduling mammograms for women over 50.
C. Referring clients with hypertension to a cardiologist. D. Organizing a cardiac rehab program for MI survivors.
Answer: A. Recommending the use of helmets when riding bicycles or motorcycles.
Expert Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs, such as safety education. Screening (mammograms) is secondary; rehabilitation programs are tertiary prevention.
The nurse is screening adult clients at a health fair. Which of the following clients is a priority for the nurse to recommend follow-up with a primary health care provider (PHCP)?:
A. 30-year-old with BMI of 26 and normal BP.
B. 45-year-old with total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL. C. 55 years old, has a blood pressure of 164/96 mm Hg, and stopped smoking 2 months ago. D. 70-year-old with pulse 62 and no symptoms.
Answer: C. 55 years old, has a blood pressure of 164/96 mm Hg, and stopped smoking 2 months ago.
Expert Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension plus recent smoking history significantly increase cardiovascular risk and require prompt follow-up. Mild overweight, normal cholesterol, and asymptomatic bradycardia in older adults are lower priority findings.
The nurse working in a well-baby clinic has assessed several infants. It is most important for the nurse to suggest follow-up for the infant who is:
A. 4 months old and can roll from abdomen to back. B. 6 months old and unable to roll over.
C. 9 months old and pulls to stand.
D. 12 months old and walks with assistance.
Answer: B. 6 months old and unable to roll over.
Expert Rationale: By about 4–5 months infants typically roll; failure to roll by 6 months is a red flag for motor delay requiring follow-up. The other developmental milestones are appropriate for the stated ages.
The nurse is caring for a child who is receiving treatment for leukemia. Upon entering the child's room, the nurse observes the parent sitting at the bedside, staring out the window, and crying. When approached by the nurse, the parent states, "I'm so worried about my child." Which of the following statements is most therapeutic for the nurse to make?:
A. “Don’t worry, everything will be fine.”
B. “You should try to be strong for your child.” C. “I'll stay here and sit with you awhile.”
D. “Have you thought about seeing a counselor?”
Answer: C. “ I'll stay here and sit with you awhile. ”
Expert Rationale: This response conveys presence and support without giving false reassurance or minimizing feelings. Therapeutic communication is essential in pediatric oncology and aligns with holistic, family-centered care.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for the nurse to implement?:
A. Encourage the client to explore childhood experiences in depth.
B. Communicate with the client using concrete and descriptive language. C. Provide frequent physical contact to reassure the client.
D. Allow the client to dominate group discussions to express feelings.
Answer: B. Communicate with the client using concrete and descriptive language.
B. “You should ask your pediatrician for ADHD medication.”
C. “It sounds like you are overreacting to normal behavior.” D. “Let’s wait until your child is in school to worry about this.”
Answer: A. “ Many 3-year-olds are naturally very active. Describe when and where this occurs. ”
Expert Rationale: The nurse normalizes some behavior and then further assesses pattern and context, which is crucial before suggesting any diagnosis. This supports family education and comprehensive assessment.
The nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had a stroke. Which of the following statements by the client's partner indicates the need for additional teaching?:
A. “I’ll help my partner with ROM exercises daily.”
B. “I will make sure that my partner has a snack 1 to 2 hours before going to bed.” C. “We will remove throw rugs from the home to prevent falls.”
D. “I’ll encourage my partner to use the call bell before getting up.”
Answer: B. “ I will make sure that my partner has a snack 1 to 2 hours before going to bed. ”
Expert Rationale: Late-night snacks can increase reflux and aspiration risk in clients with impaired swallowing post-stroke. The other statements reflect appropriate safety and rehabilitation measures.
The nurse has instructed a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about dietary and lifestyle modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates the need for additional teaching?:
A. “I’ll avoid spicy and fatty foods.”
B. “I will have a snack 1 hour before bedtime.” C. “I’ll elevate the head of my bed when I sleep.”
D. “I’ll limit my intake of caffeine and alcohol.” Answer: B.
“ I will have a snack 1 hour before bedtime. ”
Expert Rationale: Clients with GERD should avoid eating 2–3 hours before lying down to reduce reflux. A bedtime snack contradicts this teaching and increases risk of symptoms and aspiration.
The charge nurse is observing a newly hired nurse care for a client who was admitted 12 hours ago with pneumonia and has just died. Which of the following actions by the newly hired nurse requires intervention by the charge nurse?:
A. Removing IV lines and indwelling catheters.
B. Gently closing the client’s eyes. C. Leaving any jewelry on the client to be transported with them to the funeral home.
D. Washing the body and placing a clean gown on the client.
Answer: C. Leaving any jewelry on the client to be transported with them to the funeral home.
Expert Rationale: Jewelry and valuables should be removed, documented, and given to the family or stored per policy to prevent loss or dispute. Leaving them on the body is not appropriate practice.
The nurse has just received a hand-off report and is assessing a client who is receiving a transfusion of O positive packed red blood cells (PRBCs). The client's blood type is B positive. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?:
A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
B. Change the IV tubing and continue the transfusion. C. Continue to assess the client.
D. Notify the blood bank of an incompatibility.
Answer: C. Continue to assess the client. Expert
Rationale: Type O positive is a universal donor for RBCs for positive blood types; giving O+ RBCs to a B+ client is compatible. The nurse should still monitor for transfusion reactions, but no immediate action to stop is required.
The nurse is caring for an older adult client who is being seen for a well check- up. The primary health care provider (PHCP) prescribes the following vaccinations for the client:
A. Inactivated polio (IPV) series.
B. Tetanus-diphtheria booster every 10 years. C. Zoster (shingles) vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine.
D. Live oral polio vaccine (OPV).
Answer: C. Zoster (shingles) vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine.
Expert Rationale: Older adults should receive pneumococcal and shingles vaccines to reduce morbidity from these infections. IPV series is typically childhood immunization; OPV (live) is not used in the U.S.
The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin for a prosthetic heart valve. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication:
A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 3.0.
C. International normalized ratio (INR) of 5.5. D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 0.8. Answer:
B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 3.0.
Expert Rationale: Clients with mechanical valves typically require an INR in the higher therapeutic range (about 2.5–3.5). An INR of 3.0 suggests effective anticoagulation; lower values are subtherapeutic, and higher values risk bleeding.
The nurse is preparing to start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's solution for a client who sustained a burn injury. The client is prescribed 5,200 mL of fluid over the first 24 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the pump to infuse for the first 8 hours? Round to the nearest whole number.:
A. 200 mL/hr B. 250 mL/hr
C. 325 mL/hr
D. 400 mL/hr
Answer: C. 325 mL/hr
Expert Rationale: Using the Parkland formula, half of the 24-hour volume is given in the first 8
