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GNRS 576 PHARMACOLOGY: EXAM 4|ACTUAL
100Qs&As WITH RATIONALES|2025-2026|GRADED
A+
A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse's response is based on which rationale? a.The oral and injection forms work synergistically. b.The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone. c.Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so. d.Heparin is used to start anticoagulation so as to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to reach adequate levels. ANS: D This overlap therapy is required in patients who have been receiving heparin for anticoagulation and are to be switched to warfarin so that prevention of clotting is continuous. This overlapping is done purposefully to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to rise, so that when the heparin is eventually discontinued, therapeutic anticoagulation levels of warfarin will have been achieved. Recommendations are to continue overlap therapy of the heparin and warfarin for at least 5 days; the heparin is stopped after day 5 when the international normalized ratio (INR) is above 2. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 417 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy? a.Dysrhythmias b.Nausea and vomiting c.Anaphylactic reactions d.Internal and superficial bleeding ANS: D Bleeding, both internal and superficial, as well as intracranial, is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy. The other options list possible adverse effects of thrombolytic drugs, but they are not the most common effects. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Remembering (Knowledge) REF: p. 424 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination
A - to - inch 25- to 28-gauge needle is the correct needle to use for a subcutaneous heparin injection. The other options would encourage hematoma formation at the injection site. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 429 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication? a.Aspirin needs to be taken on an empty stomach to ensure maximal absorption. b.Low-dose aspirin therapy rarely causes problems with bleeding. c.Take the medication with 6 to 8 ounces of water and with food. d.Coated tablets may be crushed if necessary for easier swallowing. ANS: C Enteric-coated aspirin is best taken with 6 to 8 ounces of water and with food to help decrease gastrointestinal upset. Enteric-coated tablets should not be crushed. Risk for bleeding increases with aspirin therapy, even at low doses. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 431 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
A patient will be receiving a thrombolytic drug as part of the treatment for acute myocardial infarction. The nurse explains to the patient that this drug is used for which purpose? a.To relieve chest pain b.To prevent further clot formation c.To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery d.To control bleeding in the coronary vessels ANS: C Thrombolytic drugs lyse, or dissolve, thrombi. They are not used to prevent further clot formation or to control bleeding. As a result of dissolving of the thrombi, chest pain may be relieved, but that is not the primary purpose of thrombolytic therapy. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: p. 414 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug's effectiveness? a.Bleeding times b.Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) c.Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A patient is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. The nurse will include in the patient-education conversation that it is important to avoid herbal products that contain which substance? a.Valerian b.Ginkgo c.Soy d.Saw palmetto ANS: B Capsicum pepper, feverfew, garlic, ginger, ginkgo, St. John's wort, and ginseng are some herbals that have potential interactions with anticoagulants, especially with warfarin. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: p. 417 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential A patient has had recent mechanical heart valve surgery and is receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient's laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient's international normalized ratio (INR) level of 3 indicates that:
a.the patient is not receiving enough warfarin to have a therapeutic effect. b.the patient's warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels. c.the patient's intravenous heparin dose is dangerously high. d.the patient's intravenous heparin dose is at therapeutic levels. ANS: B A normal INR (without warfarin) is 1.0. A therapeutic INR for patients who have had mechanical heart valve surgery ranges from 2.5 to 3.5, with a middle value of
DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 419 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose? a.Vitamin E b.Vitamin K c.Protamine sulfate d.Potassium chloride ANS: C Protamine sulfate is a specific heparin antidote and forms a complex with heparin, completely reversing its anticoagulant properties. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) overdose. The other options are incorrect.
A patient will be taking dabigatran (Pradaxa) as part of treatment for chronic atrial fibrillation. Which statements about dabigatran are true? (Select all that apply.) a.The dose of dabigatran is reduced in patients with decreased renal function. b.Bleeding is the most common adverse effect. c.Potassium chloride is given as an antidote in cases of overdose. d.Dabigatran levels are monitored by measuring prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) results. e. This drug is a prodrug and becomes activated in the liver. ANS: A, B, E Dabigatran is excreted extensively in the kidneys, and the dose is dependent upon renal function. The normal dose is 150 mg twice daily, but it must be reduced to 75 mg twice daily if creatinine clearance is less than 30 mL/min. The most common and serious side effect is bleeding. Dabigatran is a prodrug that becomes activated in the liver. There is no antidote to dabigatran. The other options are incorrect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 417 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
A patient with elevated lipid levels has a new prescription for nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse informs the patient that which adverse effects may occur with this medication? a. Pruritus, cutaneous flushing b. Tinnitus, urine with a burnt odor c. Myalgia, fatigue d. Blurred vision, headaches A Possible adverse effects of nicotinic acid include pruritus, cutaneous flushing, and gastrointestinal distress. Tinnitus, urine with a burnt odor, and headaches are possible adverse effects of bile acid sequestrants. Headaches are also possible adverse effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, as are myalgia and fatigue. A patient reports having adverse effects with nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse can suggest performing which action to minimize these undesirable effects? a. Take the drug on an empty stomach. b. Take the medication every other day until the effects subside. c. Take an aspirin tablet 30 minutes before taking the drug. d. Take the drug with large amounts of fiber. C The undesirable effects of nicotinic acid can be minimized by starting with a low initial dose, taking the drug with meals, and taking small doses of aspirin with the drug to minimize cutaneous flushing. Fiber intake has no effect on niacin's adverse effects, and it is not within the nurse's scope of practice to suggest a change of medication dosage.
While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem? a. Neutropenia b. Pulmonary problems c. Vitamin C deficiency d. Liver dysfunction D Antilipemic drugs may adversely affect liver function; therefore, liver function studies need to be closely monitored. The other options do not reflect problems that may occur with antilipemic drugs. A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic "to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally." The nurse reviews his medication history and notes that which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Digoxin (Lanoxin) d. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B When using garlic, it is recommended to avoid any other drugs that may interfere with platelet and clotting function. These drugs include antiplatelet drugs,
anticoagulants, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, and aspirin. The other drugs listed do not have known interactions with garlic. A patient with coronary artery disease asks the nurse about the "good cholesterol" laboratory values. The nurse knows that "good cholesterol" refers to which lipids? a. Triglycerides b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) c. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) d. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) D HDLs are responsible for the "recycling" of cholesterol. HDLs are sometimes referred to as the "good" lipid (or good cholesterol) because they are believed to be cardioprotective. LDLs are known as the "bad" cholesterol. A patient who has recently started therapy on a statin drug asks the nurse how long it will take until he sees an effect on his serum cholesterol. Which statement would be the nurse's best response? a. "Blood levels return to normal within a week of beginning therapy." b. "It takes 6 to 8 weeks to see a change in cholesterol levels." c. "It takes at least 6 months to see a change in cholesterol levels." d. "You will need to take this medication for almost a year to see significant results."
c. Licorice d. Dairy products B Taking HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors with grapefruit juice may cause complications. Components in grapefruit juice inactivate CYP3A4 in both the liver and intestines. This enzyme plays a key role in statin metabolism. The presence of grapefruit juice in the body may therefore result in sustained levels of unmetabolized statin drug, which increases the risk for major drug toxicity, possibly leading to rhabdomyolysis. The other foods do not interact with these drugs. The nurse is conducting a class about antilipemic drugs. The antilipemic drug ezetimibe (Zetia) works by which mechanism? a. Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase b. Preventing resorption of bile acids from the small intestines c. Activating lipase, which breaks down cholesterol d. Inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine D Ezetimibe selectively inhibits absorption in the small intestine of cholesterol and related sterols. The other options are incorrect. Antilipemic drug therapy is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse is providing instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instructions will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
a. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload. b. Eat extra servings of raw vegetables and fruit. c. Report abnormal or unusual bleeding or yellow discoloration of the skin. d. Report the occurrence of muscle pain immediately. e. Drug interactions are rare with antilipemics. f. Take the drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption. B, C, D Instructions need to include preventing constipation by encouraging a diet that is plentiful in raw vegetables, fruit, and bran. Forcing fluids (up to 3000 mL/day unless contraindicated) may also help to prevent constipation. Notify the prescriber if there are any new or troublesome symptoms, abnormal or unusual bleeding, yellow discoloration of the skin, or muscle pain. These drugs are highly protein bound; therefore, they interact with many drugs. Taking these drugs with food may help to reduce gastrointestinal distress. The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action? a. Blocking slow calcium channels b. Prolonging action potential duration c. Blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0 d. Decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4 B Vaughan Williams class III drugs (amiodarone, dronedarone, sotalol, ibutilide, and dofetilide) increase the action potential duration by prolonging repolarization in phase 3. The other answers are incorrect.
A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia? a. Diltiazem (Cardizem) b. Verapamil (Calan) c. Amiodarone (Cordarone) d. Adenosine (Adenocard) C Amiodarone (Cordarone) is the drug of choice for ventricular dysrhythmias according to the Advanced Cardiac Life Support guidelines. The other drugs are not used for acute ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine (Adenocard) to a patient who is experiencing an acute episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. When giving this medication, which is important to remember? a. The onset of action occurs in 5 minutes. b. The medication must be given as a slow intravenous (IV) push. c. Asystole may occur for a few seconds after administration. d. The medication has a long half-life, and therefore duration of action is very long. C Adenosine has an extremely short half-life of less than 10 seconds; its onset occurs within 1 minute; and it must be given as a fast IV push injection. In addition, a very brief episode of asystole may occur after administration.
A 62-year-old man is to receive lidocaine as treatment for a symptomatic dysrhythmia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that he has a history of alcoholism and has late-stage liver failure. The nurse will expect which adjustments to his drug therapy? a. The dosage will be reduced by 50%. b. A diuretic will be added to the lidocaine. c. The lidocaine will be changed to an oral dosage form. d. An increased dosage of lidocaine will be prescribed so as to obtain adequate blood levels. A Because lidocaine is metabolized primarily by the liver, a reduction of the dosage by 50% may be necessary in cases of liver failure or cirrhosis. Lidocaine does not come in oral form. A patient has been started on therapy of a continuous infusion of lidocaine after receiving a loading dose of the drug. The nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effect? a. Drowsiness b. Nystagmus c. Dry mouth d. Convulsions D Convulsions are possible if lidocaine reaches toxic levels. The other options are not adverse effects of lidocaine.
