[GoogleDevelopers] Google Developers Certification Review Guide, Exams of Technology

Google Developers Certification Review Guide provides structured preparation for multiple Google developer-focused certifications. It covers programming fundamentals, APIs, application architecture, cloud integration, testing, and deployment. This guide includes technology overviews, hands-on examples, exam-aligned review sections, and mock tests to help developers validate their technical expertise.

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 02/15/2026

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[GoogleDevelopers] Google Developers
Certification Review Guide
**Question 1.** Which Google Cloud service is best suited for implementing a globally
consistent relational database with horizontal scalability?
A) Cloud SQL
B) Cloud Spanner
C) Cloud Bigtable
D) Firestore
Answer: B
Explanation: Cloud Spanner provides a globally distributed, strongly consistent relational
database that scales horizontally, unlike Cloud SQL which is regional.
**Question 2.** In a microservices architecture on GCP, which communication pattern is most
appropriate for fireandforget messaging between services?
A) gRPC synchronous calls
B) RESTful HTTP requests
C) Pub/Sub asynchronous messages
D) Cloud SQL direct queries
Answer: C
Explanation: Pub/Sub enables asynchronous, decoupled messaging ideal for fireandforget
patterns, allowing services to publish without waiting for a response.
**Question 3.** Which of the following load balancing options distributes traffic across multiple
regions based on latency and proximity?
A) Internal HTTP(S) Load Balancer
B) Network Load Balancer
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Certification Review Guide

Question 1. Which Google Cloud service is best suited for implementing a globally consistent relational database with horizontal scalability? A) Cloud SQL B) Cloud Spanner C) Cloud Bigtable D) Firestore Answer: B Explanation: Cloud Spanner provides a globally distributed, strongly consistent relational database that scales horizontally, unlike Cloud SQL which is regional. Question 2. In a microservices architecture on GCP, which communication pattern is most appropriate for fire‑and‑forget messaging between services? A) gRPC synchronous calls B) RESTful HTTP requests C) Pub/Sub asynchronous messages D) Cloud SQL direct queries Answer: C Explanation: Pub/Sub enables asynchronous, decoupled messaging ideal for fire‑and‑forget patterns, allowing services to publish without waiting for a response. Question 3. Which of the following load balancing options distributes traffic across multiple regions based on latency and proximity? A) Internal HTTP(S) Load Balancer B) Network Load Balancer

Certification Review Guide

C) Global HTTP(S) Load Balancer D) TCP Proxy Load Balancer Answer: C Explanation: The Global HTTP(S) Load Balancer routes user traffic to the nearest healthy backend across regions, optimizing latency. Question 4. When configuring autoscaling for a GKE Autopilot cluster, which metric is most commonly used to trigger scaling events? A) CPU utilization B) Disk I/O latency C) Number of active VMs D) Cloud DNS query count Answer: A Explanation: Autoscaling in GKE typically monitors CPU utilization (or custom metrics) to add or remove nodes based on workload. Question 5. Which Cloud IAM role grants read‑only access to all resources in a project? A) roles/editor B) roles/owner C) roles/viewer D) roles/logging.viewer Answer: C

Certification Review Guide

A) gcloud builds submit B) docker build C) docker push D) gsutil cp Answer: C Explanation: After building the image, the docker push command uploads it to Artifact Registry. Question 9. Which GCP service provides serverless execution of container images without managing underlying VMs? A) Cloud Run B) Compute Engine C) App Engine Flexible D) Kubernetes Engine Answer: A Explanation: Cloud Run runs stateless containers on a fully managed serverless platform, automatically scaling to zero when idle. Question 10. When designing a multi‑region high‑availability architecture, the minimum number of zones required per region to meet a 99.99% SLA is: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Certification Review Guide

Answer: B Explanation: GCP’s multi‑zone design requires at least two zones per region to achieve the 99.99% availability SLA for many services. Question 11. Which of the following is the recommended way to store encryption keys used by Cloud KMS? A) Store them in Cloud Storage buckets B) Store them in Secret Manager C) Store them in Cloud KMS itself D) Store them in Compute Engine metadata Answer: C Explanation: Cloud KMS is a dedicated service for managing encryption keys; storing keys elsewhere defeats its purpose. Question 12. Which GCP service is purpose‑built for large‑scale, low‑latency analytical queries on time‑series data? A) Cloud Bigtable B) Cloud SQL C) Cloud Datastore D) Cloud Spanner Answer: A Explanation: Cloud Bigtable is a wide‑column NoSQL database optimized for high‑throughput analytical workloads, especially time‑series data.

Certification Review Guide

C) Strong consistency within a single region D) No consistency guarantees Answer: C Explanation: Firestore Native mode offers strong consistency for reads and writes within the region where the data resides. Question 16. Which Cloud Logging feature allows you to generate a metric based on the occurrence of specific log entries? A) Log sinks B) Log buckets C) Log‑based metrics D) Log views Answer: C Explanation: Log‑based metrics count or measure occurrences of particular log patterns, useful for alerting. Question 17. In the context of SRE, what does an error budget represent? A) The total number of incidents allowed per month B) The percentage of time a service can be unavailable while still meeting its SLO C) The budget allocated for security tools D) The maximum latency allowed for API responses Answer: B

Certification Review Guide

Explanation: An error budget is the allowable deviation from the service level objective (SLO), expressed as a percentage of downtime or errors. Question 18. Which Cloud Run feature enables traffic splitting between two revisions? A) Autoscaling policy B) Traffic allocation C) Service mesh D) Cloud Scheduler Answer: B Explanation: Traffic allocation allows you to direct a percentage of incoming requests to different revisions, facilitating canary releases. Question 19. Which of the following is a best practice for securing service‑to‑service communication in GKE? A) Use default network tags for all pods B) Enable HTTP without TLS C) Use Workload Identity to assign IAM roles to pods D) Store credentials in ConfigMaps Answer: C Explanation: Workload Identity maps Kubernetes service accounts to Google service accounts, providing fine‑grained IAM permissions without secrets. Question 20. Which GCP product helps you orchestrate data pipelines that transform streaming data using Apache Beam?

Certification Review Guide

Answer: D Explanation: Cloud Build triggers are based on source changes or scheduled events; pushing a Docker image directly does not trigger a build. Question 23. In a GKE Standard cluster, which component is responsible for scheduling Pods onto Nodes? A) kube-proxy B) kube-scheduler C) etcd D) kube-controller-manager Answer: B Explanation: kube-scheduler decides which node a newly created pod should run on based on resource availability and constraints. Question 24. Which GCP feature allows you to enforce that only traffic from specific IP ranges can reach a Compute Engine instance? A) Cloud Armor security policy B) VPC firewall rule with source IP filter C) Shared VPC D) Service mesh Answer: B Explanation: VPC firewall rules can restrict inbound traffic based on source IP CIDR ranges.

Certification Review Guide

Question 25. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for a Blue‑Green deployment using Cloud Run? A) Deploy new revision → split traffic 50/50 → delete old revision B) Deploy new revision → shift 100% traffic → rollback if needed C) Deploy new revision → keep traffic on old revision → switch 100% traffic when ready → delete old revision D) Deploy new revision → run canary test → gradually increase traffic Answer: C Explanation: Blue‑Green keeps the old revision serving traffic while the new version is staged; traffic is switched atomically once validation is complete. Question 26. Which GCP service provides a managed, serverless data warehouse that can query data directly from Cloud Storage? A) Cloud SQL B) BigQuery C) Cloud Spanner D) Cloud Dataproc Answer: B Explanation: BigQuery can query external tables stored in Cloud Storage without loading the data, enabling serverless analytics. Question 27. In the context of Android development, which component is responsible for handling user navigation between screens? A) Service B) BroadcastReceiver

Certification Review Guide

Explanation: The principle of least privilege dictates granting the minimal set of permissions needed. Question 30. Which Cloud Monitoring feature lets you create an alert that fires when a custom metric exceeds a threshold for 5 minutes? A) Uptime check B) Alerting policy with condition duration C) Dashboard widget D) Log‑based metric Answer: B Explanation: Alerting policies can include a condition with a duration, ensuring the threshold is sustained before triggering. Question 31. Which of the following is a characteristic of Cloud Run’s “scale to zero” behavior? A) Instances are always running to reduce latency B) Billing stops when no requests are being handled C) Data stored in memory persists across requests D) Only works for HTTP/2 traffic Answer: B Explanation: When there are no incoming requests, Cloud Run scales down to zero instances, and you are not billed for compute. Question 32. Which GCP product should you use to store large binary assets (e.g., video files) with lifecycle rules that delete objects after 30 days?

Certification Review Guide

A) Cloud Filestore B) Cloud Storage C) Cloud SQL D) Cloud Datastore Answer: B Explanation: Cloud Storage supports object lifecycle management policies for automated deletion. Question 33. When using Cloud Pub/Sub, which delivery guarantee does the service provide by default? A) Exactly‑once delivery B) At‑least‑once delivery C) At‑most‑once delivery D) No delivery guarantee Answer: B Explanation: Pub/Sub guarantees at‑least‑once delivery; duplicate messages may be delivered. Question 34. Which GCP service is designed for executing short‑lived functions in response to events without managing servers? A) Cloud Run B) Cloud Functions C) App Engine Standard D) Compute Engine

Certification Review Guide

Question 37. In Cloud Build, which file defines the sequence of build steps? A) cloudbuild.yaml B) Dockerfile C) appengine.yaml D) terraform.tf Answer: A Explanation: cloudbuild.yaml (or .json) specifies the steps, images, and arguments for a Cloud Build pipeline. Question 38. Which metric would you most likely monitor to detect slow database queries in Cloud SQL? A) CPU utilization of the instance B) Disk read latency C) Number of active connections D) Query execution time metric (cloudsql.googleapis.com/database/query_time) Answer: D Explanation: The query_time metric directly measures how long SQL statements take to execute. Question 39. Which of the following is the correct way to grant a Cloud Function permission to read secrets from Secret Manager? A) Add the secret as an environment variable B) Assign the roles/secretmanager.secretAccessor role to the function’s service account C) Store the secret in Cloud Storage and give the function read access

Certification Review Guide

D) Use a public URL to fetch the secret Answer: B Explanation: Granting roles/secretmanager.secretAccessor to the function’s service account enables secure secret retrieval. Question 40. Which Cloud Run deployment option allows you to keep the previous revision active for a configurable period after a new revision is deployed? A) Traffic splitting with gradual rollout B) Immediate 100% traffic shift C) Blue‑Green deployment D) Rolling update Answer: A Explanation: Traffic splitting can allocate a percentage of traffic to the new revision while retaining the old one for a set period. Question 41. Which of the following is a primary difference between Firestore in Datastore mode and Firestore Native mode? A) Native mode supports transactions; Datastore mode does not B) Datastore mode provides strong consistency globally C) Native mode offers real‑time listeners; Datastore mode does not D) Datastore mode can only store binary data Answer: C

Certification Review Guide

A) Embed them directly in the container image B) Store them in Cloud Storage and read at runtime C) Place them in the Compute Engine metadata server D) Use environment variables for the entire file Answer: B Explanation: Storing large files in Cloud Storage keeps the container image lightweight and allows updates without redeploying. Question 45. Which Cloud Logging feature enables you to export logs to a BigQuery dataset for long‑term analysis? A) Log sink B) Log view C) Log bucket D) Log metric Answer: A Explanation: A log sink can route logs to destinations such as BigQuery, Cloud Storage, or Pub/Sub. Question 46. Which of the following best describes the purpose of Cloud Trace? A Answer: B Explanation: Cloud Trace collects latency data for distributed requests, helping identify performance bottlenecks.

Certification Review Guide

Question 47. In Android, which lifecycle method is called when an activity becomes visible to the user? A) onCreate() B) onStart() C) onResume() D) onPause() Answer: B Explanation: onStart() is invoked after onCreate() and before the activity becomes visible; onResume() follows when the activity gains focus. Question 48. Which of the following is the correct way to enable VPC Service Controls for a GCP project? A) Create a firewall rule that blocks all external traffic B) Define a service perimeter that includes the project’s resources C) Enable Shared VPC and add all projects to it D) Use Cloud Armor to filter inbound requests Answer: B Explanation: VPC Service Controls use service perimeters to restrict data exfiltration between resources. Question 49. Which Cloud Build feature allows you to reuse a previously built Docker image as a cache for subsequent builds? A) --no-cache flag