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Exam
Question 1. Which characteristic best defines a hazardous drug (HD)? A) Non-toxic and non-carcinogenic B) Has potential to cause carcinogenicity, reproductive toxicity, or organ toxicity C) Exclusively used for infectious disease treatment D) Only affects animal health Answer: B Explanation: Hazardous drugs are characterized by their potential to cause carcinogenicity, reproductive toxicity, organ toxicity, genotoxicity, or teratogenicity, posing health risks to humans and the environment. Question 2. According to NIOSH, which category of hazardous drugs includes drugs with reproductive risk? A) Antineoplastic drugs B) Non-antineoplastic drugs C) Reproductive risk drugs D) Environmental hazard drugs Answer: C
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Explanation: NIOSH categorizes drugs with reproductive risks as a specific group, indicating their potential to harm reproductive health, separate from antineoplastic or other categories. Question 3. Which is a primary health risk associated with hazardous drug exposure in healthcare personnel? A) Allergic reactions only B) Skin irritation only C) Acute and chronic health effects including organ toxicity D) No known health risks Answer: C Explanation: Exposure to hazardous drugs can lead to both acute effects, such as skin irritation, and chronic health issues, including organ toxicity, reproductive problems, or carcinogenic effects. Question 4. The USP General Chapter <800> provides guidelines on handling hazardous drugs in healthcare settings. Which of the following is NOT covered by USP <800>? A) Proper facility design B) Handling and storage procedures
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A) To provide sterile airflow with HEPA filtration and protect personnel and product B) To serve as a storage cabinet for hazardous drugs C) To contain only chemical vapors D) To function as a standard laminar flow hood without containment features Answer: A Explanation: Class II BSCs provide both product and personnel protection by maintaining a sterile environment with HEPA-filtered airflow, preventing contamination during hazardous drug compounding. Question 7. Which of the following is a containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) suitable for hazardous drug compounding? A) Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) B) Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC) C) Open bench top D) Standard refrigerator Answer: B
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Explanation: BSCs are designed as C-PECs for hazardous drugs, providing containment and protection during sterile preparation. Question 8. In a segregated compounding area, which condition is essential for safe handling of hazardous drugs? A) Positive pressure relative to surrounding areas B) Negative pressure relative to surrounding areas C) No pressure differential D) High humidity environment Answer: B Explanation: Negative pressure in segregated areas prevents hazardous drug vapors or aerosols from escaping into other areas, ensuring safety. Question 9. What is the recommended number of air changes per hour (ACPH) in a buffer room used for hazardous drug compounding? A) 4 ACPH B) 12 ACPH C) 30 ACPH D) 60 ACPH
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C) Compatibility with closed system transfer devices (CSTDs) D) Disposable after a single use Answer: C Explanation: Infusion sets compatible with CSTDs ensure safe transfer and minimize aerosolization or spillage of hazardous drugs. Question 12. Which of the following PPE is considered essential when handling hazardous drugs? A) Standard cloth gloves B) Chemotherapy-tested gloves C) No gloves required D) Only eye protection Answer: B Explanation: Chemotherapy-tested gloves are designed to provide chemical resistance and barrier protection during hazardous drug handling. Question 13. Why is double gloving recommended during hazardous drug compounding? A) To increase dexterity
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B) To provide an extra barrier against contamination C) To reduce glove costs D) It is not recommended Answer: B Explanation: Double gloving offers additional protection against potential skin exposure if the outer glove becomes compromised. Question 14. Which of the following is a key practice in aseptic technique to prevent touch contamination during hazardous drug compounding? A) Manipulating vials with bare hands B) Using sterile gloves and avoiding contact with sterile surfaces C) Reusing gloves between tasks D) Avoiding hand hygiene Answer: B Explanation: Using sterile gloves and avoiding contact with sterile components or surfaces prevents contamination and maintains sterility. Question 15. Which agent is commonly used for decontamination of hazardous drug surfaces?
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Question 17. Which of the following is a common component of a spill kit? A) Regular soap B) Absorbent pads and PPE C) Non-sterile gauze D) Food wrappers Answer: B Explanation: Spill kits typically include absorbent materials, PPE such as gloves and gowns, and cleanup supplies to manage hazardous spills safely. Question 18. Which PPE is essential for respiratory protection during hazardous drug compounding? A) Surgical mask B) N95 respirator or PAPR C) Cloth mask D) No respiratory protection needed Answer: B
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Explanation: N95 respirators or powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) are designed to protect personnel from inhaling aerosolized hazardous drug particles. Question 19. For which activity is a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) most appropriate? A) Routine cleaning of low-risk areas B) High-risk compounding involving aerosolization of hazardous drugs C) Handling of non-hazardous drugs D) Administrative tasks only Answer: B Explanation: PAPRs provide higher levels of respiratory protection during activities with increased risk of aerosol exposure, such as hazardous drug compounding. Question 20. Which is a key step in proper donning of PPE for hazardous drug handling? A) Don gloves after gown B) Don PPE in a specific order to prevent contamination C) Remove gloves first
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C) To increase surface glare D) To comply with cleaning schedules only Answer: B Explanation: Regular cleaning and disinfection eliminate microbial contamination and residual hazardous drugs, maintaining a sterile and safe environment. Question 23. Which of the following agents is appropriate for sterilizing surfaces contaminated with spores? A) Sodium hypochlorite B) Sporicidal agents like sodium hypochlorite or sporicidal disinfectants C) Sterile water D) Alcohol alone Answer: B Explanation: Sporicidal agents are effective against resilient spores and are used for decontaminating surfaces contaminated with hardy microorganisms. Question 24. Which calculation is essential for preparing a hazardous drug infusion?
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A) Conversion between units of volume and weight B) Calculating dose, concentration, and infusion rate C) Determining patient weight only D) Calculating pharmacy stock levels Answer: B Explanation: Accurate calculations of dose, concentration, and infusion rate ensure proper administration and patient safety. Question 25. When preparing a master formulation record for hazardous drugs, which detail is essential? A) Only the drug name B) Complete formulation, procedures, and stability data C) The patient's name D) The pharmacy's address Answer: B Explanation: Master formulation records must include detailed composition, preparation procedures, and stability information for reproducibility and safety.
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Explanation: Light exposure can degrade certain hazardous drugs, so protecting them from light improves stability. Question 28. Which storage condition is appropriate for hazardous drugs requiring refrigeration? A) Ambient temperature B) 2-8°C (refrigeration), protected from light C) Freezer at - 20°C D) Room temperature with humidity control Answer: B Explanation: Many hazardous drugs require refrigeration at 2-8°C, with protection from light to maintain stability. Question 29. During transportation of hazardous drugs, what is a critical safety measure? A) Use of tamper-evident and leak-proof containers B) Transporting without labeling C) Transport by unsecured personnel D) Leaving the drugs unattended during transit
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Answer: A Explanation: Tamper-evident, leak-proof containers prevent spills and unauthorized access, ensuring safety during transit. Question 30. Which label feature is mandatory for hazardous drugs? A) Generic drug name only B) Warning symbols and hazard statements C) No labeling needed D) Only the pharmacy’s logo Answer: B Explanation: Proper labeling must include hazard warnings, symbols, and handling instructions to inform users and ensure safety. Question 31. Which waste disposal method is appropriate for sharps contaminated with hazardous drugs? A) Regular trash bin B) Puncture-resistant, labeled sharps container C) Flushing down the drain D) Composting
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D) Stored in open air Answer: B Explanation: Light-sensitive hazardous drugs should be stored in opaque or light-protective containers to maintain stability. Question 34. What is the primary purpose of environmental monitoring in hazardous drug compounding areas? A) To check for microbial contamination and residue B) To measure temperature only C) To ensure proper lighting D) To verify staff attendance Answer: A Explanation: Environmental monitoring detects microbial contamination and residual hazardous drugs, ensuring safety and compliance. Question 35. Which type of glove material is most suitable for handling hazardous drugs? A) Cotton gloves B) Chemotherapy-tested, powder-free nitrile or latex gloves
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C) Leather gloves D) No gloves needed Answer: B Explanation: Chemotherapy-tested nitrile or latex gloves provide chemical resistance and barrier protection against hazardous drugs. Question 36. Why is it important to perform gloved fingertip sampling regularly? A) To check glove fit B) To assess aseptic technique and potential contamination C) To test glove color D) To measure hand temperature Answer: B Explanation: Gloved fingertip sampling evaluates the integrity of aseptic technique and potential contamination during sterile compounding. Question 37. Which is a recommended practice for selecting PPE during hazardous drug compounding? A) Reusing PPE across different days
